sir it's 2021 but your video from 2013 really helped me understand this topic better, a 3 hour lecture couldn't be explained better in a 12 minute video

for part (d) of your question,i think the easiest way was to check for similarities between R1and R2 only,according to what the question required you to...R1=R2,then they depend on each other,,thus being not independent.

if we drawing two balls is the probability of R1 supposed to be 6/10? two balls are picked from the urn

It's awesome 👍

in part c why the given R1 is multipyng? plz guide i m confuse

The letter c get me confused. Why b and C are different?. I understand that is a sum, of the two cases, but why multiplying with P(R1) and P(G1)? from what formula?

Thank you so much

thank you!

Awesome your explanations, By the way can you suggest some online book to all these topics? Kind regards from colombia.

thank you so much

omg dude lol, ofc C has the same outcome as A because the chance of the second ball being red doesn't change because in first pick both green AND red are possible which is a 100% chance of picking red or green at first

THANKYOU SIR

What about this .P(R1)=1.0 or 100% P(R2)=5/9. So we have 1*5/9=5/9

Without replacement? It should be 6/10 X 5/9 = 33.33 I think.

Since there is no replacement it means events are not independent that's why how P(R2|R1) = P(R2)*P(R1) ?

shoudnt it be 4/9 instead of 5/9 because we have drawn a red ball beforehand therefore we are now left with 4 red and total of 9 balls....so the probability should be 4/9 coz we havent replaced it.?

so it's not pure coincidental is it?

thank u

you can be a good commentator bro

In part a. I thought it should be (6/10)(4/9)+(6/10)(5/10)

Are you french?