It's actually a mistranslation. In the original languages, Jesus was claiming to be the son of Godzilla.

I’ve never believed in the Trinity. It doesn’t make sense in the traditional way it is taught.

Growing up i naturally always beleived this not knowing my tradition taught the trinitarian concept. The way Dan explains it makes sense theologically, rationaly and spiritually. The way Dan explains it feels right and is a notion i always held. The most high is our father in heaven, christ is his son and the most high has given him his status and done his work through him. Love it Dan!

Considering John's gnostic leanings, it is amazing itmade the Biblical cut but its popularity seems to have been greater than its obvious discrepancies with the synoptic gospels.

Dude you killed it like you always do!

Im with you 100%. My family would never agree with you as they are pentocostal. But i fully agree with you. Thats how i understood it when i 1st read the bible on my own.

Thanks for clarifying some misconceptions. Do you have any video talking about the Jubilee Year?

Another fantastic video!!! Thank you!

"Through Him, not With Him". I believe Dan's Latter Day Saints background is clouding his ability to see what Jesus is saying here. Using Phillipians 2:7 as my basis in original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, Transliterated into English, it says: "Who, being in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped," This verse highlights the selflessness and humility of Jesus Christ. Although He existed in the form of God, He did not view His equality with God as something to be clung to or asserted. Instead, He chose to humble Himself and take on the form of a human being, becoming obedient even to the point of death on a cross. Remember, this is Jesus as fully man, fully God. Our minds simply have a difficult time comprehending the nature of the Trinity. The original Greek words used in this verse convey the depth and significance of Jesus' actions. The phrase "ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων" emphasizes His pre-existence and divine nature, while "οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο" expresses His voluntary decision not to grasp at equality with God.

Love to get your take on Larry Hurtado’s early Christian christology work. I know he and Bart Ehrman take a different view on early christology, and I’d be interested in your take on their arguments.

Thank you very much for this. I would love to hear more about the use of Greek in John 1.

That's still such a weird passage because most scholars believe that the passage Jesus was referring to actually did mean literal gods and not humans.

Wow very insightful, thanks again Dan!

Ok I understood the last 15 seconds but everything before that went a little over my head 😅

@Dan Mcclellan I have a question. Is the subject of Jesus claiming to God fall under Christology? I am just wondering.

1 John 5:7- 8 is an admitted insertion by church fathers. Not in original koine Greek new testament.

@DanMcClellan Perhaps I disagree with your take of John 10 or perhaps I misunderstand. In the same book, the author of John says in 5:18 that Jesus “…was even calling God his own Father, making himself EQUAL with God.” Please note that this is NOT a Pharisee misunderstanding. Rather, it’s the AUTHOR’S view. He's emphasizing Jesus is predicated EQUALITY with capitol G God. Since this is the author’s view, we ought to understand why the author reports that Jesus submits to the Father and says the Father is greater than him. Jesus might not claim to be God but the author does.

In the OT God says over 150 times "I am the Lord your God". He is explicit and clear, leaving no doubt to his followers. Jesus never says it straight up like God did, which the lady in the video openly admits. The idea has to be guessed at by comparing terms, second hand inference and interpreting verses in certain ways. This was never God's method in the past, but apparently we are meant to guess that He completely changed His mind about telling people.

Thank you

Uhhh… maybe im missing some extra context to the womans initial video… but i dont think she was even referring to John 10:30. She didnt make the “I and the Father are one” argument. Seems like she was referring to John 5:18, where it says “For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.” Are we sure John 10:30 was the passage she was referring to?

Colossians 2:9. Which was written in the 60s . I will share translations under this comment

You likely have a video out on this, but if you could answer here, it would be greatly appreciated. Do you believe Yahweh is Jesus? I ask as Yahweh inherits Israel when Elyon divides the nations, making Yahweh the God of Israel

Not much to disagree with here. Solid video.

🤘

What is your view on John 8-58. Where Jesus says before Abraham was, I am. I was always told this was symmetrical to what God says to Ab, and a strong God claim.

27My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one can snatch them away from me, 29 for my Father has given them to me, and he is more powerful than anyone else. No one can snatch them from the Father’s hand. 30 The Father and I are one.” Clearly, if you read even from verse 27. Jesus is putting himself in the same position as the Father. He gives eternal life. The Jews definitely knew who gave eternal life. Jesus said the sheep are in HIS HAND, and no one can snatch them out of HIS HAND and the same sheep are in the Father's Hand. no one can snatch them from the Father's Hand.

That s on God is a type O.

In Genesis 1:1 it says, "In the beginning GOD created the heaven and the earth." In Colossians it says this about Jesus, "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or [e]principalities or [f]powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist. And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things He may have the preeminence." So in reality even if Jesus didn't claim to be God, and I believe He did, the Bible makes the same claim about Jesus.

The Father is referred to as Theos as well.

John 1:1 King James Bible In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:14 King James Version 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

In another verse in John 14:9 Jesus says "He who has seen me you has seen the father", and THAT you cannot dispute. However just because John wrote it, doesn't mean Jesus said it. Besides, if he did, why didn't the other gospel writers not mention it? It was made up by John, in the context of deifying Jesus.

If Jesus is referring to the gods in Psalm 82 as human people, how does this hold up with the interpretation that the Divine Counsel are celestial gods deposed by Adonai?

What is ''Capital G-God''?

Lets back up here and do this correctly. The author of the book of John, in the third layer, is forcing the reader to make an assumption that he understands the motivations of Yeshu, and I agree that some of the claims in John may align with some 1st century messianic galilean thinking, but we have to realize there are other contemporary strands radiated from these mystical ideas. The key word is mystical. We need the gospel of Tomas to understand how this motif split between two or more groups of high end believers and in doing so we can be certain that a meaningful understanding of the motivations of the third author cannot be had without understand late first century jewish mysticism and greek philosophy. 1. They were a mystical cult which meant that through meditation and ascetic practice that they were entering the boundaries of heaven [a practice that continues to this day in the kaballah, but split between Merkavah (chariot, e.g. Revelations) and Hekhalot (Palace) at the beginning of the common era]. The numerous references to the inner light in the gospels and the thrice repeated seek, find, . . . in SSoY (Tomas) make this clear] 2. That the "exact same way" meant that their path should be parallel. The "I am" in John was more or less a chant such that Jesus is putting himself in the role of god, the author is putting himself in the role of Jesus, and the reader or repeater is putting himself in the role of the author, the listener putting himself of the role of the reader. 3. "Jesus wants his own followers to attain". Yes, but he doesn't want them to take other paths. We have to point out here that Johannian christianity differs from Pauline in the sense that Paul believes he had a special vision and understanding of Jesus, that Paul is delivering his special message with no expectation that they will convert to judaism, spend three years in Arabia in mediation communing with mystics. Paul is all about the rush of ushering in the coming kingdom and his followers will be the secondary fruits as jesus was the first fruits. His visions offered him a veiw of the paradise. The author John layer 3 is offering up an alternative to the coming heavenly kingdom on earth, he is saying that the kingdom of heaven is before you, and just follow the light. So this is a distinction to what the disciples believed as they mission to the poor and upheld 2nd temple adherancy. In the psuedoepigraphical epistle of Yacov full conversion to Judiasm was a demonstration of ones committment to the way, but these measures were unimportant to the layer's author. 4. Claiming to be god and the blasphemy charge. This is a complex historical problem and no single historian knows why Yeshu_ was executed. There is no passion narrative in the Q source and Mark as a source is not credible which means that neither Matthew or Luke are. James Tabor seems to think that John has special information about the last month or so of Jesus's life, some of which is parsimonious with his travels. I am of the opinion that we dont know. Here is what we do know. 1. Yeshu and the JtB movement was anti-Herodian 2. Herodians were the benefactor of the saducees whose authority was challenged by messianic claims or claims of the corruption of the scribes and the priests. 3. Yeshu was hung from something and possibly stoned before he was hung. 4. They lost track of the body. What we do know is that there was no eye-witness in the court with Pilate recording how Jesus was interrogated. According to the talmud he was stoned and the bible says he died quickly on the cross, possibly from his stoning injuries and so it is possible. My opinion is that if Pilate crucified Yeshu it is because the Herodians wanted him to and there need not be any other reason. If the saducees stoned Jesus it was because the Herodians wanted them to. 5. There is a significant amount of middle/neo-platonic thought in the Gospel of John and some would argue that there is considerable stoicism. In platonic philosophy there is a notion of a pure or divine form and here on earth everything is a corrupted representation of the form, this divine form later becomes the Nous in mystical thought, the divine oneness. Within the evolving strands of platonism arose Henosis and a parallel called Theoria, as developed by Iraneous, in which the individual united with the divine to become one. Here is a third century example. Maximus the confessor: "A sure warrant for looking forward with hope to deification of human nature is provided by the Incarnation of God, which makes man God to the same degree as God Himself became man. ...Let us become the image of the one whole God, bearing nothing earthly in ourselves, so that we may consort with God and become gods, receiving from God our existence as gods. For it is clear that He Who became man without sin will divinize human nature without changing it into the Divine Nature, and will raise it up for His Own sake to the same degree as He lowered Himself for man's sake." Again the author of John borrows heavily from Philo of Alexander which repaints Judaism in the colors of greek philosophy. The author of the text clearly shows he is in the mileau of evolving thought between the last middle platonist and the early neoplatonism. But in doing this the author of the text clearly shows he has a greek leaning syncretization of Jesus with greek thoughts about divinity. We need to be able to distinguish the views of John from early first century Jewish mysticism, particularly thinking amoung anti-Herodian (i.e anti-grecoroman) jews of Galilee. It is important to remember that the center of jewish life was the perception of piety in social contexts and that mystical practices revolved around important social ideas like fairness, reformation, justice, and "leveling the field". Many of these ideas are deprected in the Gospel of John. The notion of YHWH Elohim are replaced in the NT by Father and son(Lord), we can see an evolution of the notion of god that typifies the evolution of gnosticism in these ideas.

I was raised in the Baptist Church and believed Jesus as God. How my mother explains it is that you take an egg, in that there are 3 parts. The yoke, the albumen, and the shell that form one egg. Just as God, Holy Spirit and Jesus are one God. But to me they are 3 entities, its God the Father through them all that gives them power and authority just as God the Father through us all that gives us life!

What does it mean to be a diety and divine?

How can Jehovah Witnesses explain John 1:1, in which it says how the Word was a god, when the Bible tells us there is only one God? 1 Corinthians 8:5 (King James Version) For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) The Bible actually says, as you can see above, that there are many gods. It makes a distinction between those that are called gods and the one true God. In fact, Jesus himself said at John 10:34-36 (King James Version) Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? Jesus acknowledged that God’s Word even refers to some men as gods. Then went on to confirm that it would not be inappropriate to refer to him as a god. Even so, he instead referred to himself as “the Son of God”. How can Jesus be referred to as a God? The word “god” is not the name of almighty God. In the Bible the word god is used as a title or as a descriptive adjective, because it simply means, strong one or mighty one. So, they Bible refers to Jehovah, Jesus, angels (including Satan), men, and false gods, as gods. Anyone in a powerful position can be called a god, Jehovah himself calls the judges in Israel gods at Psalms 82:6, which Jesus quoted at John 10:34: Psalms 82:6-7 NW - I have said, ‘You are gods, All of you are sons of the Most High. 7 But you will die just as men do; And like any other prince you will fall!’” John 10:34 NW - 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? At 2 Corinthians 4:4 Satan is called god of this system of things (or god of this world) 2 Corinthians 4:4 NW - among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, so that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through. 2 Corinthians 4:4 KJ - In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them. As for referring to Jesus as a god. Jesus was God’s first born son, the first angel he created. To translated John 1: 1 so as to suggest that Jesus was almighty God himself would conflict with everything else we are told about God’s firstborn only-begotten son. Colossians 1: 15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; The Bible tells us God is a spirit, Jesus was also a spirit, as are all of the angels. At Hebrews 2:7 the Apostle Paul quoted Psalms 8:5 where the angels are referred to as “godlike ones.” Compare the two scriptures and note; one calls them angels the other calls then godlike ones. Hebrews 2:7 - You made him a little lower than angels; with glory and honor you crowned him, and appointed him over the works of your hands. Psalms 8:5-6 - You made him a little lower than godlike ones, And you crowned him with glory and splendor. You make him dominate over the works of your hands. ... You also must consider the context. John wrote his gospel and you have to consider what he said throughout and ask what is he telling us about Jesus in harmony with everything else he tells us. For instance, notice what John says just a few verses later: John 1:14 NW - So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth. John 1:18 NW - No man has seen God at any time: the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him. In those two verses John himself tells us Jesus is the only-begotten son and only- begotten god. The word begotten comes from the word beginning, meaning Jesus had a beginning, unlike God who is eternal. John also said we had a view of his glory and then he says: no man has ever seen God at any time. It is obvious that John was not saying Jesus was almighty God himself, he was using the word god to describe his divine nature and powerful position as the only begotten son of God. Jehovah’s Witnesses do not base Bible doctrine on one scripture, we examine everything the Bible says and base our beliefs on all that it reveals to us about God and Christ. Jesus never claimed to be God, instead he referred to his heavenly father as “the only true God” and as “my God and your God”. John 17:3 - This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ. John 20:17 - ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God. Jesus said his father was greater than he: John 14:28 KJ - Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. Jesus said there were thing he did not know which only his father knew: Matthew 24:36 AS - But of that day and hour knoweth no one, not even the angels of heaven, neither the Son, but the Father only. Jesus said God is one not a Trinity of three Gods in one. Mark 12:28-29 NW … “Which commandment is first of all?” 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. Jesus refused to be addressed as “Good Teacher” saying only God is good: Mark 10:18 KJ - And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God. We also do not believe the Bible contradicts itself, so if we find a verse like John 1: 1 which seems to contradict what dozens of other scriptures tell us about Jehovah and Christ Jesus, we look more closely at how that verse is translated to see if there is a legitimate reason to translated it in a way that it harmonizes with the rest of the Bible. Note: This is not the question where I posted this answer. What did Quora do now? Here is the verse you refer to: But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.-1 Corinthians 8:6 (KJV) Take that, along with John 1:1, which is about Jesus, in the context of John 20:17, in which Jesus is speaking: Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.-John 20:17 (KJV) John 1:1-2 tells us that the “Word” was “with the GOD” in the beginning, but it does not say that the Word was “the GOD.” (Why not re-examine a Greek-English Interlinear Translation of John:1: vss 1-2+18. Although the Bible teaches that there are many Gods (1 Corinthians 8:5-6) … the Bible teaches that there is only one true Almighty God Jehovah and he is the Creator and he is “GOD of Gods” … (Genesis 17:1 and Deuteronomy 10:17, Joshua 22:22) so, this means that he is greater than lesser “gods.” Compare Psalm 136:2; Daniel 2:47 and 11:36; Psalm 82:1-7 and 95:3. Other spirit creatures, the angel ONE The Bible says that there is only one Almighty God. The Bible says that there are many Gods. 1 Corinthians 8:5, 6 “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are.” This Scripture lists two people: One God the Father Separate from Jesus One Lord Jesus Christ Separate God Look at how each is described One God the Father out of whom all things are God is the source of life. and we for him God deserves the worship One Lord Jesus Christ through whom all things are.” Jesus is not the source of life Worked with the Almighty, his Father and God to create all things even life. Proverbs 8:22, 30 Colossians 1:15, 16 Revelation 3:15 Genesis 1:26 John 1: 1, 3; 17:6 TWO The Bible says there are many gods. The Bible says there is one Most High, or Almighty God. Psalm 83:18 “That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth.” Jesus is called a Mighty God, NOT the Almighty. Isaiah 9:6 “For there has been a child born to us, strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not

Why refer to God the Father if we are not all Sons of God?

This is brilliant. Always incredibly entertaining to see Christians chase their own tail and try to rationalize a 2000 year old collection of fables

I have to say that, as a Jew, I have had to watch this video a couple of times now - and probably a couple more - to fully understand what is going on. Where does Christianity get the idea that Jesus IS HaShem IS the Son of HaShem in the first place? Also, what is a Holy Ghost in this context and what is the origins of that?

Before Abraham, I am - is that claiming to be god?

Waffle Waffle Waffle. That's all i heard there. The text us quite clear and he missed the mark by a mile.

Thank you Dan. If we have to rip the Bible apart to stop this jackassery then I am up for it. Even as child, i understood so this nice man. Just says, "hey you know these people lied to you. All you have to do is love god with all your being, and all your heart . And two you see that person, love em, love em with the most purest form. And he named the purest form of love. Mother to a child." The nicest person who ever lived. Would be ashamed at what is done in his name. Thank you dan, rip it apart so nobody can claim ignorance.

Yikes. Glad I stopped believing all this stuff in my early teens. Exhausting.

So a few things. No to claim that Jesus being the God of Israel are recognized as being God is a Nicaean concept it’s just flat out wrong, in fact it predates Nicaea by several centuries someone even argue millenniums. You are importing all kinds of outside assumptions and thereby say assuming that the Bible is univocal when doing so, by importing some thing from Exodus 23 and trying to superimpose it on all of the New Testament as if it’s universal. You are assuming that the trinity cannot be proven using scripture because it’s a later develop concept that an assertion, and if we can demonstrate that is taught in scripture then your hypothesis completely falls apart. And to say that this understanding is not with the new testament authors how did Jesus therefore this can’t be a valid hypothesis is simply just presuppose that your conclusion is true. No I would agree that John 10 does not demand that Jesus is God but I think it’s certainly supports the idea that he is God. And John 17 does not support your case. And you clearly don’t understand Christ hypostatic union or his support nation to the Father, Jesus is not saying you can be one with God as he is in terms of divine nature but relationship to a certain extent. Not in the exact same way Jesus and the father have a relationship but very similar. John 10 is a different context, since the chapter is about Jesus Priestly prayer to the father his subordination to the father before his subsequent demise on the cross and his promise to disciples. It is not in the exact same way you are assuming it’s in the exact same way simply because of the language. No the word nature is not present and the context is not demand that it must be nature as you’re claiming you’re taking a very wooden and literal reading of the passage. In what way though? Now if we are going to understand your interpretation and Jesus is saying the same thing about his followers but he is in John 10, why did the Pharisees and the Jews pick up Stones to Stone him if he were simply claiming simply to be with God? There’s clearly bigger implications involved. No again that is your presupposing and superintending the language of John 10 onto John 17 as if it’s the exact same thing. Leon Morris has an excellent commentary on this passage so does Larry Hurtado although I don’t agree with either of them 100% since they take the traditional reading of John 10:30. There is absolutely reason to think that based on other parts in scripture where Jesus and unity with his followers in his unity with the father is clearly different, The relationship is clearly different, and also because of the implications and the reactions we see in John 10 compared to John 17. The only reason to take your interpretation of Joh 8:58 and Thomas clear statement in John 20:28 is if you have a presupposition against the deity of Christ or the trinity. But I do agree that Jesus claiming to be the son of God does not mean he is equal to God necessarily so I don’t think that’s very strong evidence on its own. To say in one context Theos is being used qualitatively therefore we can impose that in import that from a different chapter onto another book as if it’s the same when there’s absolutely no reason, and the context makes no such demand is completely fallacious and is not based on data whatsoever, it is based on a presupposition that Jesus can’t be God because his Christology did not exist which is itself is a presupposition. And to say that there is no distinction between being one with God as Christ is in Christ being one with God is just nonsense and laughable any remotely literate person understands the basic distinction and you are not uneducated you’re just going with dogma over data. Which come on if you’re gonna assume anyone who objects to you and your claims it’s just going with data over dogma I think it’s only fair for me to do it if you’re gonna be disingenuous in bad faith about it. Where is laughably false are you telling me there was no line drawn between claiming divinity and to be god that is pure and utter nonsense there is a clear distinction.

John 8:58 "Before Abraham was, I AM". That sounds like he is claiming to be GOD.

Since all these claims that Jesus said this or said that are predicated on the proven existence of such a person, for which there is none, quoting from these invented stories about this fictional Jesus is like quoting King Arthur, or Sir Galahad, amusing but pointless. The christian church has created an enormous edifice of self referential belief in a non-existent entity and if you don't play their game then you can't have any discussion with them. To rational people this all seems totally pointless, like discussing what Sir Lancelot did or didn't say when sitting at the Round Table of Antiquity on a particular Wednesday afternoon. It is all nonsense. I do not imply that studying how these myths came about or those from which they were derived is in any sense a waste of time, clearly this is not so. However arguing points about what some early christians put in the bible just shows how much the story has changed, not that any particular version of it is in any sense true.

My issue with your explanation, and one I understand you disagree with, is that Pharasies were monotheistic. If you were claiming to be a diety you were claiming to be God. Unless you are suggesting that Jesus was identifying himself as some other God, which would be considered a Pagan false god and certainly get him killed.

"The father is in me, and i am in the father." "I and the father are one," "You can not tempt your god"- talking to saten, tempting him on the mountain. "If you have seen me, you have seen the father."

Dan . As Mike Licona Points out . Mark in chaoter 1 uses old testament passsages that apply too yhwh and mark put jesus in the place of yhwh .. It even refers to the temple as being jesus temple . Aka yhwhs temple

Thank You so, much for this video ! Jesus wasn’t saying he was God ! Holy shit I said this years ago.

You have read your F. Schleiermacher.

Jesus was divine not deity.

Jesus would never declare himself to be God, rather he reveals himself to us and we come to know he is God. It's all there, you missed a few layers of data. I am not sure why people are excited over this video. There is nothing eye opening or profound. It's like an accountant reading the budget in a business meeting, nothing more than saying certain words do not appear in the Bible therefore Jesus did not claim to be God. Jesus being God and Jesus claiming to be God are not the same thing. On another note, Dan being a member of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints which claims Jesus is Jehovah and teaches that Jehovah is the God of the Old Testament. well... do the Math, sorry.. evaluate the data.

Jesus here is referencing Exod 3:14, burning bush, Why did you not reference this? The Jews knew exactly what he was saying. Why did the Jews pick up stones to kill him? It wasn't because of what he was saying earlier or that you should love your neighbor, it was literally after that point they sought to kill him as he was referencing his eternal nature. Talk to a rabbinical Jew who believes Deuteronomy 6:4 they will easily tell you Jesus was saying, Yo, that voice in the bush talking to Moses, that was me. Jesus references Ego Eimi six more times, which are in other OT scriptures references to God and at least in two instances another person, Peter and Martha acknowledges what he is saying. Jesus is clearly saying He is the Christ, He was saying that before Abraham was, Jesus was appointed to be the Messiah/Christ. This was prophetically confirmed through the OT, and it is affirmed by the apostle Peter in 1 Peter 1:19-21: they would have stoned him for this. You cant always base you answer on a cherry picked set of scriptures, try looking at more of the bible.

Being anarthrous is no evidence of indefiniteness. There are many situations in John where something being anarthrous is a reference to something which has to be definite.

I find your take interesting. Maybe God's purpose is for future understanding. Faith means to believe God -not if you understand- but for no other reason than God said it. The Jews were skeptics constantly trying to figure things out. Isaiah said they would be deaf and blind lest they would be saved. "Who has believed our report..." Jesus was God incarnate, indeed.

Alright, let's hear it: And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed. Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.

400 Videos of you dissecting everyone on social media and I never noticed any comment on your beliefs and your qualifications/education?????? Would you be so obliged to give the world some background on you? Even in your "About" section I did not see anything. Thanks

This sounds a little Joseph Smith biased.

John 1:1 It's plain. Father created. Jesus is the Word that IS God. Without Jesus, nothing would have been made. It's very clear. JESUS IS GOD.

God is the Father of Jesus. So we know what the Bible's stand on this is, so why would you argue that Jesus isn't God? Jesus not bragging He is God and quietly doing the work of a servant even dying on the cross, I find that to be a very impressive character trait. God told man how to live and man blew it, so God came down to walk the walk and talk the talk; then He paid the price to destroy the curse of Adam so that every human will be saved.

No he is not the infinite All/God ,he is the son of the Evening Star,who is the daughter of the infinite All/God, who is outside of time space matter, we humans live in the lower world or material ,the infinite All/did take him from his mother the evening Star and did teach him the unknowable, and the infinite All is the creator of all...not just a god to Israel , Enlil is Yahweh/Johovah he is not the infinite All/God ,"the servant is not greater than the master but can take on the masters properties" making him like his master Genesis 1 verse 3 = 14 billion years ago was , Revelations 4 verse 4 = the Mourning and Evening Star 's throne or paradise made by the infinite All /god Genesis 1 verse 6 = 4.5 billion years = Revelations 12 = Great war in heaven and evolution of intelligent life that gave rise to the Annunaki who gave rise to Modern/Civilized man , Enlil/Johovah is a fallen son of the Evening Star,and false god of Israel , I'll look him right in the face tell him ,who he is and I promise you i will face no consequences for putting a false god and ignorant child in his place ,it was the Evening Star who didn't need the aid of a man to bring forth life not Mary (living Waters turned to blood) but at one time used to be crystal clear, before the fall from grace , the holy grail is the cup of the womb ,not some material cup with special powers..... hehehe aww man boy I'm telling you Revelations 12, that is Christ being called up to the infinite All, before the foundations of the world, even the Annunaki , it's like trying to tell someone you know their child that they brought forth better than you do ,you know what I mean???

Are your words not who you are? I'm unsubscribing to this dude.

Another great video from Dan. Although when he says that "Jesus says", it's kind of like saying that "Charlie Brown says" or "Robin Hood says"....it's words put into the mouth of a 'person' by the writer of a story, a story that first appears some 80 or 90 years after the time that the words were supposedly spoken. And it appears in a completely different language. Maybe Jesus did say them, but we have no reliable way to determine that, because we don't have a time machine.

I’m the alpha and the omega the first and the last the beginning and the end what was what is and what is to come the apostles and early church Pre Nicaean creed all support the trinity and @rainypuddz to assume God is traditional is insane he’s outside of our universe

How can Jehovah Witnesses explain John 1:1, in which it says how the Word was a god, when the Bible tells us there is only one God? 1 Corinthians 8:5 (King James Version) For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) The Bible actually says, as you can see above, that there are many gods. It makes a distinction between those that are called gods and the one true God. In fact, Jesus himself said at John 10:34-36 (King James Version) Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? Jesus acknowledged that God’s Word even refers to some men as gods. Then went on to confirm that it would not be inappropriate to refer to him as a god. Even so, he instead referred to himself as “the Son of God”. How can Jesus be referred to as a God? The word “god” is not the name of almighty God. In the Bible the word god is used as a title or as a descriptive adjective, because it simply means, strong one or mighty one. So, they Bible refers to Jehovah, Jesus, angels (including Satan), men, and false gods, as gods. Anyone in a powerful position can be called a god, Jehovah himself calls the judges in Israel gods at Psalms 82:6, which Jesus quoted at John 10:34: Psalms 82:6-7 NW - I have said, ‘You are gods, All of you are sons of the Most High. 7 But you will die just as men do; And like any other prince you will fall!’” John 10:34 NW - 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? At 2 Corinthians 4:4 Satan is called god of this system of things (or god of this world) 2 Corinthians 4:4 NW - among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, so that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through. 2 Corinthians 4:4 KJ - In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them. As for referring to Jesus as a god. Jesus was God’s first born son, the first angel he created. To translated John 1: 1 so as to suggest that Jesus was almighty God himself would conflict with everything else we are told about God’s firstborn only-begotten son. Colossians 1: 15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; The Bible tells us God is a spirit, Jesus was also a spirit, as are all of the angels. At Hebrews 2:7 the Apostle Paul quoted Psalms 8:5 where the angels are referred to as “godlike ones.” Compare the two scriptures and note; one calls them angels the other calls then godlike ones. Hebrews 2:7 - You made him a little lower than angels; with glory and honor you crowned him, and appointed him over the works of your hands. Psalms 8:5-6 - You made him a little lower than godlike ones, And you crowned him with glory and splendor. You make him dominate over the works of your hands. ... You also must consider the context. John wrote his gospel and you have to consider what he said throughout and ask what is he telling us about Jesus in harmony with everything else he tells us. For instance, notice what John says just a few verses later: John 1:14 NW - So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth. John 1:18 NW - No man has seen God at any time: the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him. In those two verses John himself tells us Jesus is the only-begotten son and only- begotten god. The word begotten comes from the word beginning, meaning Jesus had a beginning, unlike God who is eternal. John also said we had a view of his glory and then he says: no man has ever seen God at any time. It is obvious that John was not saying Jesus was almighty God himself, he was using the word god to describe his divine nature and powerful position as the only begotten son of God. Jehovah’s Witnesses do not base Bible doctrine on one scripture, we examine everything the Bible says and base our beliefs on all that it reveals to us about God and Christ. Jesus never claimed to be God, instead he referred to his heavenly father as “the only true God” and as “my God and your God”. John 17:3 - This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ. John 20:17 - ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God. Jesus said his father was greater than he: John 14:28 KJ - Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. Jesus said there were thing he did not know which only his father knew: Matthew 24:36 AS - But of that day and hour knoweth no one, not even the angels of heaven, neither the Son, but the Father only. Jesus said God is one not a Trinity of three Gods in one. Mark 12:28-29 NW … “Which commandment is first of all?” 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. Jesus refused to be addressed as “Good Teacher” saying only God is good: Mark 10:18 KJ - And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God. We also do not believe the Bible contradicts itself, so if we find a verse like John 1: 1 which seems to contradict what dozens of other scriptures tell us about Jehovah and Christ Jesus, we look more closely at how that verse is translated to see if there is a legitimate reason to translated it in a way that it harmonizes with the rest of the Bible. Note: This is not the question where I posted this answer. What did Quora do now? Here is the verse you refer to: But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.-1 Corinthians 8:6 (KJV) Take that, along with John 1:1, which is about Jesus, in the context of John 20:17, in which Jesus is speaking: Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.-John 20:17 (KJV) John 1:1-2 tells us that the “Word” was “with the GOD” in the beginning, but it does not say that the Word was “the GOD.” (Why not re-examine a Greek-English Interlinear Translation of John:1: vss 1-2+18. Although the Bible teaches that there are many Gods (1 Corinthians 8:5-6) … the Bible teaches that there is only one true Almighty God Jehovah and he is the Creator and he is “GOD of Gods” … (Genesis 17:1 and Deuteronomy 10:17, Joshua 22:22) so, this means that he is greater than lesser “gods.” Compare Psalm 136:2; Daniel 2:47 and 11:36; Psalm 82:1-7 and 95:3. Other spirit creatures, the angel ONE The Bible says that there is only one Almighty God. The Bible says that there are many Gods. 1 Corinthians 8:5, 6 “For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are.” This Scripture lists two people: One God the Father Separate from Jesus One Lord Jesus Christ Separate God Look at how each is described One God the Father out of whom all things are God is the source of life. and we for him God deserves the worship One Lord Jesus Christ through whom all things are.” Jesus is not the source of life Worked with the Almighty, his Father and God to create all things even life. Proverbs 8:22, 30 Colossians 1:15, 16 Revelation 3:15 Genesis 1:26 John 1: 1, 3; 17:6 TWO The Bible says there are many gods. The Bible says there is one Most High, or Almighty God. Psalm 83:18 “That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth.” Jesus is called a Mighty God, NOT the Almighty. Isaiah 9:6 “For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.” The Almighty can be called a Mighty God. But a Mighty God is not necessarily the Almighty God. THREE Texts from which a person might draw more than one conclusion, depending on the Bible translation used. If a passage can grammatically be translated in more than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse, then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another imperfect human. John 1:1, 2: RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in