There is an important prophecy in the Song of Songs (5:9-16). In this prophecy, the person being talked about here is God's lover. One of the characteristic names of the Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) is Habibullah means the one whom God loves.

"ask the JEWS, this is their book"

Bible also mentions that this spirit of truth will be unlettered & from Kadar. Which other Prophet who is unlettered came from Arabia with revelation containing chapters glorifying The Messiah & Mother Mary?

Show chapter ,verse.

Also did Deedat not understand the purpose of the seven spirits in the Book of Revelations. Because the seven spirits in the Book of Revelations describe the seven attributes of one Holy Spirit: 1) The Spirit of the LORD 2) The Spirit of wisdom 3) The Spirit of understanding 4) The Spirit of counsel 5) The Spirit of power 6) The Spirit of knowledge 7) The Spirit of the fear of the Lord These 'seven spirits of God' in the book of Revelation are a reference to the Holy Spirit in the perfection of His manifold ministry.

Brother, turn down your music so all can your comments.

Also was Deedat wrong about his claim that spirits and prophets are the same. The text in 1 John 4 says: “Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world.”. But the verse is clear e.g. in the word ‘because’. In Greek “ὅτι’ = ‘hoti” which means ’that’ or ‘since’ or ‘because’. Clearly this verse only states that spirits are the result of the presence of false prophets in the world. So 1 John 4:1 clearly states that false prophets are the course and spirits are the result. That makes clear that prophets and spirits are NOT the same, they are two different types of entities.

Deedat was no scholar in classic languages. Moreover, Deedat was not even officially educated at all. And never did Deedat refer to a scholar in classic languages. Sure every noun in the Koine Greek has a gender. But the gender of nouns, not pronouns but nouns, in which they refer can differ indeed. Like in John 1:4: "In him (M) was life (F), and that life (F) was the light (M) of all mankind." So a female noun wich refers to a neuter noun. So in the same way as in John 4:24 "God (M) is Spirit (N)..." is in John 14 the Paracletos (M) is Spirit (N). And yes, the Paracletos is a person but not a human. Not a human because it is a Spirit (John 14:17), the Holy Spirit (John 14:26), which the world cannot see (John 14:17) and is in people (John 14:17). So Deedat’s 'argument' fails. And so no prophet in John 14-16, let alone Muhammad.

Mr deedat was a great scholer,, he knew your bible than you,,, no christian priest,, scholer never defeated him in his whole life,,

Let me ask you Mr man did the Holyspirit came to the his followers on the day of pentecost? Repent all moslems

When you read John 14-16 in context, then it will become clear that the Paracletos (translated as Comforter or Helper) does not fit Muhammad at all. First of all, in John 14-16 Jesus Christ was speaking to His disciples. But Muhammad was not with the disciples (John 14:17). And Muhammad was not in the disciples after Jesus Christ's ascension (John 14:17). Muhammad was not sent in Jesus' name (John 14:26). Muhammad was not the Holy Spirit (John 14:26). Muhammad did not teach the disciples (John 14:26). Muhammad did not remember the disciples everything what Jesus Christ has said to them (John14:26). Muhammad is not sent by Jesus Christ (John 15:26 and 16:7). Muhammad did not testify about Jesus Christ to the disciples (John 15:26). Muhammad did not guide the disciples in all truth (John 16:13). Muhammad did not disclose it to the disciples (John 16:13). Muhammad did not glorify Jesus Christ (John 16:14). Muhammad did not become his 'revelation' from Jesus Christ (John 16:14 and 16:15). So the Paracletos is definitely not Muhammad.

Is Muhammad predicted in Songs of Solomon 5:16? חִכֹּו֙ מַֽמְתַקִּ֔ים וְכֻלֹּ֖ו מַחֲמַדִּ֑ים זֶ֤ה דֹודִי֙ וְזֶ֣ה רֵעִ֔י בְּנֹ֖ות יְרוּשָׁלִָֽם׃ ḥikwō maməṯaqqîm wəḵullwō maḥămadîm zeh ḏwōḏî wəzeh rē‘î bənwōṯ yərûšālāim: “His mouth is most sweet; he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem.” The first mistake by Deedat is that he pronounced מַחֲּמַדִּ֑ים as ‘muhamaddim’. But he is wrong, it is ‘ma-kha-madim’. So there is no pronunciation of Muhammad. The other mistake made by Deedat is that he said that ‘מַחֲּמַדִּ֑ים' is a name. Again he is very wrong because מַחֲּמַדִּ֑ים is a masculine plural noun, so it is not a name (like יְהוִֹה, Yhvh). And because it is not a name it is impossible that it refers to the name of ‘Muhammad’. Also the claim that the plural 'im' (or 'eem') in ma-kha-madim in the Hebrew language was ‘added for respect’ is in this case false. First of all, nowhere in Songs of Solomon 5 it speaks about אֱלהִים, elohim, the masculine noun for a godhead. But Song of Solomon 5 speaks about ממתקים, mamtaqim and מחמדים, ma-kha-madim. So you can't compare apples with oranges. Biblical poetry is typically built on pairs of metaphors, for example "they were swifter than eagles, they were stronger than lions". In Song of Songs 5:16 it's "His mouth is most sweet, ממתקים, he is altogether lovely, מחמדים. So מחמדים, ma-kha-madim is equivalent to ממתקים, mamtaqim. So the addition ‘-im’ is just a superlative of ‘desire', so it means 'most desire'. Exactly in line with the other words in vers 16: ‘mamtaqim’ = most sweet and other places ‘partamim' = most noble. Forms of the same Hebrew word are also used elsewhere in the Old Testament, yet Islamic ‘scholars' do not claim that those passages refer to Muhammad. Rightly so, since those verses cannot be forced to fit the notion that Muhammad is under consideration. For example, Isaiah 64:11 mourns the destruction of Jerusalem: “Our holy and beautiful temple, where our fathers praised You, is burned up with fire; and all our pleasant things are laid waste.” “Pleasant things” is a form of the same word in Song of Solomon 5:16. Would Deedat contend that Muhammad was “laid waste” in Jerusalem? Additional occurrences of the same word are seen in 1 Kings 20:6; 2 Chronicles 36:19; Lamentations 1:10,11; Ezekiel 24:16,21,25; Hosea 9:9,16; Joel 3:5. Is in this cases also Muhammad mentioned? If yes, why? If not, why not? So in Songs of Solomon no Muhammad.