This is problem 4 on page 25 of "Complex Analysis," by Stein and Shakarchi.
Пікірлер: 62
@dogbiscuituk26 күн бұрын
Proving complex numbers can't be ordered is maybe the one place not to order your premises starting with i 😂
@Eknoma26 күн бұрын
Your first sentence and what comes after "In other words" are very different. "A total order" and "A total order compatible with the ring structure" are two very different things... By the well-ordering "axiom", C is even well-orderable, which is a lot stronger statement than just totally orderable
@28aminoacids26 күн бұрын
Who said complex number can't be totally ordered? I just ordered them yesterday. They are still sitting there, totally ordered as I still can see.
@snellbrosmath26 күн бұрын
I gotta see that!
@vekyll27 күн бұрын
A much easier proof is possible: first show that for any nonzero x, exactly one of x and -x is positive (easily follows from ii), and in both cases x² is positive (easily follows from iii and i). Then both 1=(-1)² and -1=i² must be positive, a contradiction.
@irhzuf26 күн бұрын
It doesn't easily follow. How did you do it?
@DrakePitts26 күн бұрын
@@irhzuf in (ii), set (z1, z2, z3) = (x, 0, -x). That is, suppose x > 0 so that x + (-x) > 0 + (-x), implying that 0 > -x or -x is negative. Alternatively, set (z1, z2, z3) = (0, x, -x) so that -x is positive and x is negative. By (i), one of these cases must be hold if x ≠ 0.
@vekyll26 күн бұрын
@@DrakePitts maybe easier: "at least one" (of x and -x is positive) follows from (i). Now if both x and -x were positive, x+(-x) would be greater than x+0, that is, 0>x, a contradiction.
@irhzuf26 күн бұрын
@@DrakePittsThanks! And I guess that in (iii) if x>0 then you pick (x,0,x) so x^2>0 from (i) it can't be different. (a similar thing can be done if -x>0) Then if we assume that 1>0 then -1
@irhzuf26 күн бұрын
@@vekyllBoth could be negative so (i) doesn't prove that at least one of them is positive.
@jackhimes4400Ай бұрын
Oh yeah. Thank you!
@snellbrosmathАй бұрын
I hope you found it as interesting as I did!
@jackhimes4400Ай бұрын
Very much so! I love KZfaq channels that take viewer requests like that!
@snellbrosmathАй бұрын
@@jackhimes4400 Well, when I know how to do it 😅
@taylorfinn149626 күн бұрын
How come in the 0>i case you multiply both sides by -i but do not flip the signs?
@snellbrosmath26 күн бұрын
Because the previous line says that -i>0. You only flip the inequality if you multiply by a negative number.
@taylorfinn149626 күн бұрын
@@snellbrosmath oops gotcha that makes sense.
@Fysiker25 күн бұрын
TLDR 0=i leads to every complex number having the same size I'm unfamiliar with orderings, so I may have a stupid question: why can we say 0!=i? Of course we know this from our usual use of the equals sign, but aren't we constructing a new relation to order C that may be very different from the usual "="? Do we technically need to show it out, like maybe the extra step of squaring each side of 0=i (maybe repeatedly to get 0=-1 and 0=1) and observing that our additive and multiplicative identities being the same perhaps violates having axioms 2 and 3 simultaneously true?
@Fysiker25 күн бұрын
I'm thinking aloud here. If 0=i we also have 0=i=1=-1. This immediately makes our concept of bigger and smaller complex numbers different from that of the real numbers which is unfortunate but doesn't mean an ordering isn't possible for C. Let's play with axiom 2. Say we have two complex numbers z and w and z>w. By axiom 2, z+0>w+0. Our 0=i relation will give us a few extra inequalities, eg z-1>w+1. We can again add zero to both sides of this inequality and inductively find an infinite set of inequalities, z+n+mi>w+k+qi, where n,m,k, and q are integers. We have shown that any complex number y=w+k+qi (with k and q integers) satisfies the same inequalities as w. We certainly couldn't have yw then because it would produce contradictions, so y=w if 0=i
@Fysiker25 күн бұрын
One minute lol, I should have done this first: let z be a complex number. In the ordinary sense, z = (-1)×(-1)×z. In our ordering sense we know -1=0, so we get z= 0×(-1)×z=0. Therefore every complex number has the same size as 0. So letting 0=i gave us a trivial ordering. Wouldn't that make 0=i valid in some sense?
@lucaslindenmuth877925 күн бұрын
In general, we say that 0 cannot equal 1 in a ring. Letting 0=i implies that 0=1, and therefore invalidated 0 from being the multiplicative identity, and Vice versa.
@muskyoxes26 күн бұрын
How widespread is this definition of total order? I thought the standard meaning of total order is just about comparisons, without arithmetic requirements, in the same way that partial orders are
@natebrown280526 күн бұрын
I think total order takes on additional meaning in the context of rings and field, but this might be a linear order actually
@Phylaetra26 күн бұрын
I think he meant to say that C cannot be an ordered field. Any _set_ can be totally ordered (well, if you accept accept the well ordering axiom), but if you are ordering an algebraic structure of some kind you want the ordering to be preserved under the operation(s). You can also look at finite fields and see why they cannot be ordered, even though it is trivial to order their elements (independent of the operations).
@swenji911326 күн бұрын
Actually, the fact that every set has a linear order is independent from ZF but it's stricly weaker that the well-ordering axiom (equivalently the axiom of choice) 👍
@Phylaetra26 күн бұрын
@@swenji9113 is it? Well, it's been a while since I've messed with that part of set theory.
@swenji911326 күн бұрын
@@Phylaetra Yes, I remember proving that any set can be linearly ordered from the completeness theorem, which is equivalent to the ultrafilter lemma. I know nothing about the proof but I know the ultrafilter lemma is strictly weaker than AC :)
@HugoNobrega8727 күн бұрын
can you fix the title tho? it's not impossible to define a total ordering on any set :)
@ahoj772027 күн бұрын
The problem comes from point iii. RxR can be totally ordered lexicographically. It can even be well ordered, using the axiom of choice…
@canaDavid127 күн бұрын
But it is not possible to define a total order on any field. Actually, R is the only totally ordered uncountable field.
@HugoNobrega8727 күн бұрын
@@canaDavid1 Sure, that's why it would be better to have a clearer title
@snellbrosmath27 күн бұрын
Sorry :)
@Eknoma26 күн бұрын
@@canaDavid1 Any subfield of R which is uncountable is also totally orderable as a field... Any field where -1 is not a sum of squares is orderable as a field...
@DanDart3 күн бұрын
And here I was thinking you could by saying do real first then complex but no that breaks things
@AsiccAP25 күн бұрын
would this not contradict the axiom if choice?
@snellbrosmath25 күн бұрын
Can you elaborate?
@snellbrosmath25 күн бұрын
Could you elaborate?
@kylecow193021 күн бұрын
if i>0 then i^2 = -1 > 0 so by adding 1, 0>1 so by multiplying by -1, 0>-1 contradiction so i
@snellbrosmath21 күн бұрын
> is just a relation, not necessarily the "greater than" relation that we are accustomed to. That's why we need to get a contradiction in the way we did.
@tixanthrope25 күн бұрын
According to the definition at the start of the video, = is a total ordeer on complex numbers.
@snellbrosmath21 күн бұрын
What definition? i=sqrt{-1}?
@takyc788327 күн бұрын
great video
@snellbrosmath27 күн бұрын
Thank you!
@LaminatedMoth25 күн бұрын
are you left handed?
@snellbrosmath25 күн бұрын
No, why do you ask?
@matthewward170527 күн бұрын
Your a lifesaver!
@snellbrosmath27 күн бұрын
Glad it helped you!!!
@lenskihe25 күн бұрын
It's interesting that transitivity is not needed for this
@snellbrosmath25 күн бұрын
The author of this book decided to give this definition for you to show how complex numbers "compare" with each other.
@snellbrosmath25 күн бұрын
Another note, transitive, requires that elements have a relationship (are comparable) in order to show transitivity (a>b and b>c => a>c). If the elements aren't comparable, then we can not fulfill the assumption for transitive.