Weird mannerisms but you can tell he's passionate about it and could make the subject more fascinating than a dry, monotonous professor

He's just a little boy. Never had to grow up. Have some pity.

@@Luke-eg1gn lol😂

@@ScottJB I mean he's also wrong about just about everything

@@fearmor3855 could you please clarify?

Yeah, why else would one click a video called "the Indo-European dual"?

Yeah I was hoping for some insight into the Indo-European dual and instead get this guy talking about Indo-European invasion theory as if it that was actually something that happened, as if it were 1920 and we didn't know any better.

Yeah, me too.

You can learn Sanskrit. That ancient language of Hindus (Aryans). It still has all 3 cases, single, dual, plural intact. Its used defacto in most languages from sanskrit eg. marathi hindi etc.

The singular, dual, and plural are not cases. They are numbers. Cases are things like nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, ablative, and the like.

That "twa" seem to be pretty close to Slavic "dwa". I'm not a linguist, but his talk seemed to turn into "technobabble" at some point even to me. After all, this is just TEDx, even Shelldrake and other nonsense made it's way here.

Actually organizing things in 3's is an indo-european trait. Look up the Welsh triads, the statement of the celts to Alexander, the 3 classes, the 3's in the tales etc.

@@geoffreyharris5931 Hmmm, maybe, in our beliefs and fairy tales three and nine are magic and lucky numbers. Fairy tales often start with "aiz trejdeviņām zemēm" ("beyond three by nine countries" basically - "far far away", sort of like "Star Wars" movies started).

@@geoffreyharris5931 Heaven, Earth and Man. The three treasures. These are important concepts to the Chinese. Organizing things in triads isn't just an indo-european thing.

Old English is truly West Germanic, by the time of Middle English, however, the line between North & West Germanic begins to blur. A great shift has happened under the Danelaw, swept under the rug. This is why English is more like Norwegian, Swedish and Danish, rather than German or Dutch. This is why the English 'two' is more alike the Norwegian & Danish 'to' than anything else.

There is a dual form in old church slavonic also which is ironically not as old as one would think it is, it is still being used today in slavic orthodox christian masses, only slovenian retained this dual form out of all slavic languages.

each branch has their archaic lang and each daughter langs contribute to the proto forms living: icelandic, lithuanian, indic lang idk that branch most archaic, going to extinct: tocharian, ancient greek, sanskrit, hittite, etc.

going to the extinct section* also some like luwian dacian thracian, etc are not included cuz of not enough inscriptions left to determine their branch still valuable tho

OK, also in Slovene we have kupica, dveri etc. But, please write excample of verb such as have or be. Or adjective suchas closer, smaller etc.

Noi, he is just missing the point. Maybe he didn`t read topic before he started. :D

@@bojanstare8667 a short time he was talking about "two"...

@@bojanstare8667, pozabil je pogledat dvakrat.

And the Estonians.... 🙄

According to the map Britain and Ireland don’t exist...

Well, Russian is an officlal language in parts of Mongolia and thereby he's right.

@@gwhats Russian is an official language in parts of Estonia, so he's right. Russians make up 25% of the Estonian population.

@@Pejannator Because of the Soviet Russia they can speak Russian very well but does it mean their official language is Russian?

no, its ok. But its school. Not an academic level.

Ted Timmis I agree with multiculturalism: reinforce border security so that countries can preserve their separate cultures. true multiculturalism on a large scale can only be preserved by reducing it from occurring on a small scale

"reinforce border security so that countries can preserve their separate cultures" But what does that mean on a practical level? Do you not let people in if they're too different? How do you define "too different"? France and the UK are vastly different culturally, should we be forbidding any French people from entering the UK, and vice versa? Would the government get to decide which cultural practices you must perform? I understand the concern of cultures becoming jumbled together by multiculturalism, but what exactly is the alternative, back in reality? Culture being changed via its influences has been happening for all of human history, and the world was relatively 'globalised' by the time of the Silk Road.

nextpkfr So, I suppose you have no issue if your country is flooded with immigrants who have views and beliefs antithetical to yours.

@@Andrew513Fisher Well said, Andrew. Preserve diversity, no more slapdash melting pots that destroy peoples lives.

Well, you're delayed or in another world, because it is genetically and archeologically proved that it was an invation by yamnaya because europe was occupied by 2 mixed population (hunter-gatherers and farmers from neolithic).

a lot of this information is wrong but ok

Good narration, buzt he missed the topic.

Those who claim to be speaking Sanskrit are lying. They speak a pidgin dialect mixed with Dravidian languages.

It is just dvojina in Slovene. And that`s means duality of nouns, verbs and adjectives.

The root of mateva - presumably, mate - is the Greek word for eye. (Could the VA be for the 2 eyes, rather than 2 people?) I've read that Lithuanian is the closest language to proto-IE. (I do not know where Sanskrit fits in.)

No, Own Petard. i am Lithuanian. This is lithuanian verb , and the root is MAT-, and the ending -ĖVA (or -OVA) means exactly that the action was completed by pair of people. You can construct a million other werbs with this ending.

the oldest and most archaic indo-european language is Lithuanian. Lithuanian is older and the ancestor of Sanskrit. Linguists who are unfamiliar with Lithuanian classify it with Slavic, this is as wrong as Celto-Germanic, or Greco-Romantic. Yes both Lietuviskai and Slavinski have borrowed words from each other, but that does not imply a relationship, grammar and other differences show only a distant relationship.

aistta Not meant to be argumentative, but no one needs two people to confirm that one of them has seen something. On the other hand, it is comforting to say, as in English, that 'I saw it with my own two eyes' - a common expression. Therefore, even though Lithuanian has its own words for 'eye', I think it is reasonable that 'long ago', the same root as the Greek word for eye, mat, was shared with Lithuanian, and the eva/ova ending added, to denote 'two eyes', meaning 'I saw'.

Own Petard however you are argumentative :) You didn't understand me. Well, I am not so fluent in English. But being native Lithuanian I know exactly what the word matyti means and what the endings, like OVA mean. Matėva means, that I and my pair (husband for ex.) have seen smth. together. Your assumptions are wrong. As I said, by adding the ending VA to ANY verb, you costruct the verb form, meaning that pair of people (I and my pair) were doing something together. For example, ėjova (we went together, me and my husband...). I think, it is comfortable to ad an ending to one word rather than explain action in 7 words, like in English, imho.

Why would you be proud of that?

@@proksenospapias9327 well it's a rare feature I guess so...

@@proksenospapias9327 because he has nothing else to be proud of

It's because he is a dead language about 2k years)

Also Slovene language has dual form of nouns, verbs, and adjectives. And if you learn it, you don`t need to use OVS syntax, but just VS. Here is example: Singular Dual Plural I am Jaz sem We are Midva sva We are Mi smo she Medve sva she Me smo You are Ti si You are Vidva sta You are Vi ste she Vedve ste she Ve ste He is On je They are Onadva sta They are Oni so She is Ona je They are Onidve sta They are One so It is Ono je - First is object and second is verb. Of course is also defferent gender. In some ways it will be also different gender in plural verbs. I don`t speak Sanskrt. I know that alot of words are the same with the same meaning. Also word Veda using we every day. I know also that name of our river Drava means fluid or fast in old Sanskrt. And by the way, in Europe is one more language - Lusatian Sorbian language. And that is all.

Hamza Tahir Now we just need to know what our ancestors worshipped so we can do away with the garbage abrahamic religions. my guess is it was something close to Zoroastrianism.

alexreising85 god, that would be such a blessing man

alexreising85 like the dude said, they worshipped a tripartite deity. They were crazy about 3. Father, Son , holy , Ghost. Check out Bhuddism if you want to live a principled life for the sake of being a good person and not because you are told what to do. You can even pick what god you want to believe in as Buddhist doctrine doesn't exclude the worship of a deity, rather it seeks to awaken the divine within you.

It's not at all difficult, you can know what they worshipped if you study Rig Veda and the work of Elemire Zolla.

I’d like to think he’s a really stressed introvert that got to speak to an uncomfortably large crowd. I don’t think so but I’d like to

@@YiannissB. That is normal for American professor studying old Greek language.

You are (at least partially) (by culture).

He implied that if you know English you are from Indo-Europeans. Which is silly like himself.

@Mat A Why western Europe? Is it just western Europe of PIE origin?

@Mat A You are almost the same as him. You forget about 1 billion people.

@Mat A Not Ucraine and south Russia,but nowadays Kazahstan and Afganistan region.

It's TEDx - the x stands for "did not pass quality checks"

For the same political reason he kvetched about muh conquest. The only New World culture of any value destroyed by Europeans was the Inca, the rest were doing jack shit- some were even cannibals.

I don't think they destroyed any culture except new world and african maybe...

MichToJoshya African culture is submerged but not destroyed, their languages are spoken in large enough numbers.

Jacob Robino Also the mesoamericans did quite a bit. Nativlang did a video on the Maya and Aztec languages with some background on culture and history, I highly recommend it.

Abdigani Sugal True but they were already gone when the Spanish rolled in.

Indo European cultures have survived only because they are not monolithic, in fact that's how they expanded - frequent infighting and wars causing the less fortunate ones to find better fortune and luck elsewhere without losing the core language structure or key cultural aspects - especially the positive relationship with *dogs* and horses. I know not of any IE language speaking culture that consumes dogs for food or hunts dogs for sport. IE people did conduct horse sacrifices , but did not eat horses regularly . The French 'tradition' of eating horses comes from Napoleons ill advised and disastrous campaign in Russia , when surviving soldiers were forced to slaughter their horses to prevent death by starvation.

😂 Very Sensitive Topic

Sinhala in sri lanka you have D, Daat (toth)

in slovenian and lithuanian there is.

dant[Tooth] is the sanskrit. daant is the bengali. Daat in Sinhali. Sanskrit is the mother of all languages.

Pathik Ghosh No it is not. It's not old enough. There was likely never one original language but several. How long have humans been speaking? If we limit the time frame to just the amount of time the species known as modern humans has been around then perhaps 100k years in southwest Asia. At that time people lived in hunter gatherer bands of perhaps 200 individuals max. Given the geographical dispersion necessitated by their lifestyle bands would have been far flung over wide territories. Even if all bands had begun with a common language, which is impossible, they would each quickly diverge linguistically until, in a few generations, dialects would develop and then, through thoroughly established linguistic principles, the dialects would diverge into different, mutually incomprehensible languages. English diverged from German in a mere 500 or 600 years. How many permutations would the original dialects be capable of undergoing in 100k years? There is simply no way that Sanskrit, Hebrew, or any known language existed 100k years ago because we, the speakers, change our language too much, generation after generation, from the depths of time until now. Furthermore, the earliest fossils of modern humans come from Africa and are actually 200k years old. We do know that the species experienced a genetic bottleneck and population fell at one point to perhaps no more than 6000 to 7000 people. While few in numbers, these people would still have been living in separate, far flung and isolated bands speaking dialects of the languages of the neighboring bands which would diverge into incomprehensible distinct languages in bands whose ranges never intersected. Sanskrit is a difficult and fascinating language but it simply can not be the Ur language of all the world. There never was just one language; after all, we each speak in our own unique way, with special words for use among the family, the neighborhood, the village, etc. Yesteryear's linguistic landscape was admittedly sparser yet still diverse.

Pathik Ghosh sanskrit language descended from pakhto / Bakhdi and pakhto is oldest language in the world.

You are right. But pls you have to next comment under your, and youwill see for which people is excellent professor. lol

dvandva is still used like tofugu explained in Japanese rendaku concept also existed a wikipedia page.

​@@user-tr7hv2fp8q It went there with an Indian Prince

This is what I came here expecting to watch, but halfway through the video the presenter abandoned his own premise and turned his presentation into a 1930s romanticist view of what languages are. Very sad.

Watch it again. He said it is a double of four.

You are correct. Indo-European is a language, therefore a culture. Different "peoples" could have spoken it.

Also Slavs preserve R1a1. In Slovene we have still 43% of R1a1. And duality also. That means for nouns, verbs and adjectives.

once upon a time the indo-europeans was confused with the descendents of Japhet... it would be a race then. Scholars have abandoned this idea, but the interesting part is that the bible notes his family tree and we roughly know were they lived. Guess what? It matches very closely with how the indo-europeans moved and spread their culture.

the more you exchange ideas and borrow from each other the more similar it will become... so losing differences is inevitable in the end..

Why not both?

Sanskrt has 7 cases. But no language (except Slovene and Lusatian Sorbian) has full duality of nouns, verbs and adjectives. P.s.: če se ti da, ti priložim primer, da drugi sploh ugotovijo, kaj je to dvojina. Večina sploh nima pojma. Litvanec se je nekaj duval, potem je pa prebral in izjavil sorry. Tudi moderni Sanskrt nima polne dvojine, kot jo ima stari. Pa še ena zanimivost. Bolj, ko je Sanskrt starejši, volj je podoben slovenščini. Singular Dual Plural I am Jaz sem We are Midva sva We are Mi smo she Medve sva she Me smo You are Ti si You are Vidva sta You are Vi ste she Vedve ste she Ve ste He is On je They are Onadva sta They are Oni so She is Ona je They are Onidve sta They are One so It is Ono je - First is object and second is verb. Of course is also defferent gender. In some ways it will be also different gender in plural verbs. I don`t speak Sanskrt. I know that alot of words are the same with the same meaning. Also word Veda using we every day. I know also that name of our river Drava means fluid or fast in old Sanskrt.

@@bojanstare8667, itak, saj se jeziki sčasoma razvijajo vsaksebi.

@@bojanstare8667 Latin has 7 cases, Sanskrit has 8 cases inherited from PIE, as Ancient Greek.

LOL!

Technically you're triple Indo European since English vocab is 50% Germanic via the Anglo Saxons and 50% Romance via French

@@tarasdiakiv8032 You should complain to the guy in the video because at 6:33 he says 'Everybody in this room who speaks or understands English is Indo-European'. The guy I replied to made a joke about being double the Indo-European based on this premise. I then expanded on that pointing out English gets its vocab from Germanic and Romance families. In any case if the person I replied to is Punjabi, he may well have Vedic, Scythian and Greek ancestry.

Because he was straight up lying about his etymological findings. Look at the comments again and think critically.

V angleščini pa je zgrešil najočitnejši primer: both.

The male haplogroup line R1A & R1B are wide spread Aryans stretching from Iceland&Ireland to India. Not just a culture

they're only present in indians and eastern europeans. probabl originating somewhere in the western part of india.

Oh no, even the experts say it was a race. There was a gene, can't remember, and modern Indian brahmins have that gene!

It is a genetic group, ie a race. Iran, Northern India, and All of Europe are all part of this. It is hard science, the only disagreements are where the group originated.

Northern Indians are part of the indo europian group, which either began in Southern russia or georgia. The science is in, but it is very controversial in India for some reason.

The Altaic hypothesis is dead, a bunch of pseudo-linguistics for you.

@@ADIMM0 What do you mean Altaic hypothesis is dead?

The only commonality between these languages and peoples are: you are the losers of history. Have a great life!

austronesian time

Phillipine?? No way

?

"either as its native tongue or one of its official languages" Swedish is an official language in Finland so I guess he reasond that way. It's similar in Hungary, it's not a proto indo - European language but German is an official minority - language therfore Hungary is also coloured in. That's my best guess to why the map looked the way it did or he didn't want to confuse people with an overly exact map.

"What is mine, is mine, and what is yours, is mine." - Indo-Europeanists.

He also marked South Africa because they speak English there but English ain't their native tongue

@@vito7361 South Africa was marked because of Afrikaans, not English

@@schadenfreude000 it might be another reason yes but we shouldn't forget that Afrikaans is not spoken by many (SA has like 16 official language) as far as I know English is spoken by everybody (or at least the most people)

Most TED-x talks are rife with pseudoscience anyway. Its just a way of making some wealthy people feel privileged by inviting them to expensive conferences

Varghese b In persian: One:yek Two:duo Three:se Four:chaar Five:,panj Six:shesh Seven:haft Eight:hasht Nine:noh Ten:dah

@@masoudm8917 yes much similarity with Hindi 🙂

Yes man 👍🏽👍🏽

That would be duel not dual

Actually go by the number system here, jedan sin, dva sina, tri sina, četiri sina but once you hit pet it becomes sinova, Serbian and Croatian have 3 numbers yes but the old dual forms have come to mean a few things rather than only two of them and they also can't be used on their own

Yes exactly. It makes more sense. But unfortunately many people won't believe or accept that.

also pitra -father bhatr- brother matr -mother navik- navigation and so on....

Would it not make sense for the origin to be in a central location? Also we know there are IE languages older than Sanskrit, see Hittite which was spoken in modern Turkey, that we have direct attestation of, the out of India theory is pretty wrong and illogical of you think about dates and cultural interaction. It'd be highly unlikely for a language family to spread out of India and then reach all the way to the most western reaches of Europe, as opposed to branching out from the Caucasus and reaching both Western Europe and India, its just a shorter distance and requires a lot less of "If X went well" to work

@Kostas T Οι παπαριές είναι δικό σου παιχνίδι... χρυσό μου!

He said "where an IE language was an official language". Swedish is an official language of Finland

Hey, so you think Ire-land comes from the word Arya? I heard that etymology very much disproved. I'd love to hear your opinion/sources. It's been a question of mine since I was 14

Zoroaster says the first land created by god was Aryanam-Vaeja and it was the land which drew water from the cosmic ocean (skies) and this fresh water was channeled as rivers , and something similar in old Vedic literature . So it has to be the mountains of the Pamirs or Central Hindukush ( Ghor province) . Arya itself means nobleman - which in turn refers to a town-dweller not a steppe barbarian , and the term Arya ( civilized, mannered) is contrasted with Barbara ( uncouth , stammering ) . The Barbarians were called degraded Aryans simply because they may have lost out in the towns regulated environment and formed rebellious wild bands escaping into the steppes to seek fortune elsewhere .

@@rameshraghothama8324 I’m getting a distinct ideological odor in your writing, one that is OIT rather than AIT. am I wrong?

No buddy. Arya seems specific only to Proto-Indo-Iranians. They came almost 1000 years from PIE later. Arya doesn't have an etymology in general PIE only in the recent PIIr branch

@@bezbezzebbyson788 Scroll up and read reference linked above

Italian is derived from Latin. What is Latin for one, two, four and eight?

And I live in capitol of Slovenia. Ena, dve, tri. štiri, pet, šest sedem, osem, devet, deset. I live on number petindvajset.

@@bojanstare8667 the "pet" (pek?) for 5 is interesting...

@@demonte6582 It is pet, sure.

@@eikaiwajapan the number words seem to be long. Do the japanese really use them? or shorter versions? I vaguely remember, when doing karate-do.... we counted not exactly that way,

It's pretty much entirely wrong so don't be too happy

Do you need example what duality is?

jaz grem (singular), midva greva (dual), mi gremo (plural); mesto (town - singular), mesti (two towns), mesta (towns)

+Claus Valca Row That's the same thing I thought! ^-^

Arguably Indo-European, in the sense able to converse in an Indo-European language. European is not a language group. There are European languages that are not Indo-European, like Hungarian and Basque.

@@jonnyaxelsson9940 right. but he can still be an eropean and if he wants to, he can be proud of it. Men needs some business.

Those are loanwords from Spanish, not inherited terms

My god 2,3,6,7,8,9 are samewhat similar to hindi pronunciation.

@@guardianGod009 Philipines was colonied by spain. So the mordern philipinese were from spanish with is from proto indo-european (ancent steps) which also gave rise to sanskrit from which Hindi derived. Thats why they look similar. isn't is so amazing how from spain steps india philipines all are closely connected even though they are geographically so much far.

@@abikmagar1597 yeah...i guess but whatever.

@@descendedofrigvedicclans2216 oh come on you can't honestly say that while seven and eight are syete and otcho, literally identical to Spanish

I am amazed with the similarities between Semitic and Indo-European languages. I wonder if there must have been a connection.

Dual isn't a case, it's a grammatical number

Not really, everything he said is either extremely controversial or outright wrong

To je res , vendar sam pri sebi ter pri drugih opažam (sem iz štajerske), da je kar dobro ohranjena edino pri ženski obliki velikokrat uporabimo množino tako da se poskušam popravljat, kar se da čim bolj

@@sternadms8738, za ravnotežje pa južni del Gorenjske pogovorno uporablja še glagolsko žensko dvojino: prideve, se slišve. ;) Ko slišim kaj takega, kot: A greve na kofi? tudi sama uporabim dvojino - rabim dva ta kratka.