Your encouraging comments are good repayment for me!

Thanks for the encouragement!

Thanks for the encouragement!

Thanks for your question. I have a BTh which included three years of study of Bible Greek and Hebrew. Since then I have kept up my reading and study of those languages. I also have SIL training and experience in translation. Your interlinear Bible will be giving you what I call a first approximation translation, which may not be the best translation for the particular context. For example it may gloss arton as ‘bread’ but in the Lord's Prayer it has the wider meaning of ‘food’.

You can work through my youtube lessons and put any questions you have as comments and I will answer them as best I can. God bless you.

Thanks.

Thanks! I will

And the native speakers of the language are fortunate indeed

Sorry. I use the pronunciation of Erasmus, but probably I don't even get that right.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras your pronunciation is not Koine Greek. Tois is pronounced tis. ouranois is pronounced uranis. It's upset to read Biblical Greek with a pronunciation used in Athens in 500 BCE but there's no fault in you since your intentions are good

I use the pronunciation of Erasmus, which has been widely used in universities for centuries. ... However I guess it was never used by any native speakers of Greek. My apologies to you.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras no need for apologies. Thank you for your kindness

​@@rossandelizabethmckerras you don't have to apologize, Sir (to any of your viewers)

Yes. Although 'the name of yours' is not the usual way to speak in English and can have connotations.

Thank you!

I try to answer this with my video The Sacred Name of God kzfaq.info/get/bejne/fr-pa7xm3bjIgKs.html

Savaoph,,,

Usually I'd say just one meaning and so one punctuation is intended: consider e.g. 1 Thessalonians 2:14-15: Stanley E. Porter argues that there should be no comma after 'Jews' (which nearly all English versions have): 'you suffered the same things from your own countrymen as they did from the Jews, who killed both the Lord Jesus and the prophets, and drove us out, and displease God and oppose all men' (RSV), With the comma, the following clause applies to all Jews; without the comma the clause is restrictive, i.e. restricted to just some Jews. -- Not sure I agree with him though.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras I love your example, because it so beautifully illustrates my point. On the one hand, it was only the Jews in that day that killed Christ. But, for whose sins did He die? All of ours, right? So, it is right and true and proper to say that You and I are also literally guilty of killing Jesus Christ on the Cross. So, you see? The Jews of that day are clearly intended. And, the Jews of all time are clearly intended. (Since, all mankind is clearly included!) I love scripture! But, I love the author more!

You're taking it further than I had thought, but you make good points.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras Well, if my musings blessed you, or got you in any way closer to Jesus, then I am happy! If they helped you in any way whatsoever, I am blessed. I love praying for the impossible. Do you have a special, impossible request I can put on my prayer list for you?

@@rossandelizabethmckerras Interesting. Not sure I agree with you (!): clearly not all Jews at the time killed Jesus so there's a really strong case for the restrictive sense, limiting the accusation to only those who were responsible; hence no comma. Interesting.

Yes, it makes an interesting study, especially the words used that aren't in the New Testament. ... but I can't see any mention of Mary. Are you looking at another creed?

Hey, I would like to have a quick conversation. This is a 3 year old comment, but the Lord is always the same, and after death, there is an eternal afterlife. Do you consider yourself a good person? Much love ❤️✝️

Thank you, I am continuing to make more translation videos.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras thank you sir for your response pls make a video on the narrow path Matthew 7:13-14. My paster says it should be the hurting or difficult path is he right

The primary meaning is narrow, but it can describe a situation of oppression, while 'wide' can refer to a place of comfort and ease.

@@rossandelizabethmckerras thank very much for taking time to reply to my queries, I would be great full if you could answer 1 more query, does the word, outer man and inner man, refer to our carnality and new being in christ in 2 Corinthians 4:16 also pls do tell me what does the original greek word mean literally mean

The pronunciation I use is basically that suggested by Erasmus, the great Renaissance scholar, and taught to generations of students of New Testament (Koine) Greek. More recent scholarship has determined more accurately how Koine Greek was pronounced: see for example kainediatheke.com, and www.biblicallanguagecenter.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/08/Koine-Pronunciation-2012.pdf. (Acknowledgements to Randall Buth.) I personally still find Erasmus' pronunciation helpful because it reflects the written text more closely with its closer correspondence between letters and sounds. Also because that's how I was taught to say it, and I'm too old and stubborn to change! Anyway, the words have gained new resonance for me personally as I have worked to improve my reading.

Espero que minhas aulas ajudem. Você pode passar por minhas lições numeradas.