maaan, i was struggling to understand this topic. u explained it just like that. thank you. u got my like : )

Thank you so much for clarifying CAPM.

Brief and precise ❤ thanks you!

This video was super helpful, i found exactly what I needed thank you so much :))

Your teaching visuals are very organized and your explanations are very clear, thank you.

thanks for your detailed information and explaination

Very nice presentation!!

Very helpful indeed

Tq so much sir for clearing the CAPM And eassy understanding sir tq

Helpful thank you....

thanks for an excellant video

Thank you so much this helps a ton I can’t understand my professor

Thank you..👏🏾

Thanks alot

Made my life easier ❤

Thanks 🙏

Cost of equity = expected return...never heard of it 😮

Nice

Hello, could you explain to me the risk-free return? Every example that I have ever seen lists the risk free return as the risk free return instead of the T-Bill rate? I just like to know 100 percent that I am correct. Can you correct me if I'm wrong? Let's say the T-Bill rate is 2 percent. The Expected Market Return is 8 percent. Beta is 2.2 . Am I still able to calculate expected return as the T-Bill yield is 2 percent? And the reason why the risk-free rate is a part of the CAPM equation is because it's the compensation that an investor gets for putting money into a company for a period of time and taking on the risk, instead of just putting that money into long term government bonds or T-Bills? Also, why is the risk free rate subtracted from the market premium? As I understand the other side of the equation (Beta*Market Risk Premium) represents additional risk. I understand that without the risk free rate that would mean a higher expected return. Fundamentally, why do we subtract the risk free return to get the market risk premium?

Hey thanks for this detailed video, it was very helpful. Am I the only one who found RF = 0.5 because (-02/-0.4) = 0.5 . how did you find RF= 2?

Your videos are excellent. Thanks for sharing them. Can someone just tell me why we need to include the risk-free rate in this calculation for the expected rate of return? How or why does the risk free rate (i.e. gov bond yields) effect the performace of a stock floating on the market? There appears to be no real life relationship between the two as far as I can think?

Hello can't see the link

how you get the 0.2

Rf-1.2Rf= -0.2? Is the math correct there?