Wouldn’t it be more likely that the creolization occurred when the saxons invaded and “English” as we could theoretically refer to it developed as a creole of the Saxon Germanic language and the native Anglish peoples language? With the French influence being more of an adoption of words to describe many things English did not have proper or distinguished terms for at the time.

Doesn english also have celtic(britonic) influence?

I think calling English a creole is maybe a little inaccurate to the absolute definition of creole, but in many ways English is akin to a creole in the way it formed and I do think this could explain the vast difference between middle English, which I as a native Northern English speaker can understand very well, and Old English, which is completely unintelligable to me. Though I would be interested in your thoughts on that. Oh another interesting theory you might enjoy regarding this that you could do a video on is the idea that English lost gramatical Gender as a result of the fact it was influenced by two different languages which had their own systems of gramatical gender and used masculine and feminine for sometimes the same objects. So as a result instead of trying to keep to both forms of gramatical gender, English practically dropped it as it would be impossible to agree between the Romance and Germanic influenced parts of the language whether some nouns were masculine or feminine, so the whole concept was thrown out.