Yes that Jesus is LORD Isaiah 9:6, 43:10 and John 8:24

Jesus is the visible image of the invisible God

Where dpes the bible say that exactly what you just said ?

Jesus is the son Not GOD

Read revelations lol Jesus is lord be careful , in the last days …….

That sounds like 200% to me..

Where do you see any reference to Jesus in John 1:1-3 If you think Jesus is the word, prove it from scripture. Note that John 1:14 is a mistranslation. Nowhere in the Bible do you find scriptures that support the foolish notion that the logos of YHWH became a flesh man. Throughout the Bible the logos of YHWH always CAME TO the prophets. In Luke 3:2 the word (logos) of God came to John the Baptist. That's the theme throughout the Bible. John 1:14 conveys the same thought. *"_and the word CAME TO humanity and dwelt in us..."_* NOT AMONG US....but IN US. If the word is not in you, then you ain't born again friend.

And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:

@@johnspartan98 >Note that John 1:14 is a mistranslation. Please provide support for your theory that it is a mistranslation. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

So I guess Jesse is Arian?... "So if there is any encouragement in Christ, any comfort from love, any participation in the Spirit, any affection and sympathy, 2 complete my joy by being jof the same mind, having the same love, being in full accord and of one mind. 3 Do nothing from selfish ambition or conceit, but in humility count others more significant than yourselves. 4 Let each of you look not only to his own interests, but also to the interests of others. 5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,1 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God ra thing to be grasped,2 *7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant,3 being born in the likeness of men.* 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him athe name that is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, cin heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and devery tongue confess that Jesus Christ is eLord, to the glory of God the Father." Philippians 2:1-11

That's not what the verse says. Finish reading. Jesus is telling us that he is the way to the Father. In other verses he says the words he spoke are not his own words but the words of His Father. He said the words he spoke belong to his Father and he called those words spirit and life. John 6:63. John 14 24. Jesus referred to himself and his followers as the "Light of the world." This doesn't mean Jesus or his followers are God. It means they have the light of God's word in them and the word in believers causes them to share that light.

That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:

The man and the woman are one. Same person?

@@Fitricson Jesus, the Holy Spirit and the Father are all God in divinity. One in essence but three separate persons

The "WORD" of God was with God since the beginning. God's Word is in YOU. If God's WORD is with YOU, are YOU God? No, so was it with Jesus/Yeshua. When YOU become one with the WORD, YOU become one with God but no that doesn't make YOU God. Understand?

Jesse is a heretic...

Jesse denies the divinity of Christ... I've always wondered where this guy was coming from. I heard him say it was a lie to have to workout a marriage just two days ago and that really got me wondering...now I know the root of his error...he denies the Godhood of Jesus...

Before Abraham was born, Yahovah! With the interpretation of the wicked Jesus had a speaking disorder and couldn't even produce a grammatically correct line of speech. I am Johnny. According to the interpretation of the wicked I now have claimed to be God. Jesus on the other hand said to believe in God and also in him.

The scripture is more than sufficient to conclude that Jesus is God the Son in the Trinity of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. To deny this is to deny the scripture and then you're lost on sinking sand. Do you put your trust in your own mind? Now that would be crazy. God knows your heart, and everyone else's. He knows if someone doesn't understand, or if they are in unbelief. He'll deal with each one according to His judgement.

Nonsense. The Bible never says Jesus is God. In addition, God is a spirit and His spirit is Holy, Hence there is no third person of the trinity. The Holy Spirit is YHWH the same as your spirit is you. 1 Corinthians 2:11. Believe the scriptures and stop believing what others tell you. Check everything people claim about the trinity according to the scriptures and pray....then you will see.

Soul is your body. Stop that shit

@@johnspartan98 YES!! THE BIBLE DOES PROCLAIM THAT JESUS IS GOD!!!

John 11:36: "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" If he is the son of God, as he says, he is not God.

When a man has sex with his wife and the sperm of the man enters his wife egg and born a male child. This child is not the Father but the son of the Father and Mother. God doesn't have sperm, so His seed is His Word that went into the egg of Mary and now has an only begotten Son.

John 11:36: "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" John 14:28: "My Father is greater than I". Mark 10:18: "Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God".

@@BernaskaneyTheLangobard So are you implying that Jesus said he himself was a sinner? Are you saying that Jesus was a sinner? Are you saying that a sinner came from heaven? Are you saying that the Father used his sinning son to die for the rest of the sinners?🤔🤔🤔🤔🤔 I'm shutting you up with questions....

@@BernaskaneyTheLangobard YES HE WAS THE SON OF GOD AND NOT THE SON OF MARY

JOHN 8:58 and Exodus 3:14-15 PART 1 Did Jesus say "I am God? Is God's name "I am"? NO AND NO. You have been lied to. The use of uppercase letters when translating "ego eimi" in John 8:58 and "ego eimi ho on" in Exodus 3:14, is deceptive and misleads people to think Jesus is YHWH. The Greek expression, "ego eimi" is never used as a name for YAHWEH, Jesus, or anyone. The Greek in Exodus 3:14 reads "ego eimi ho on" "ego eimi" translates (I am) "ho on" translates (the one who is)." There is no connection between "ego eimi" in John 8:58 and "ego eimi ho on" in Exodus 3:14-15. Furthermore, God said to Moses, “Tell the children of Israel this: ‘I am the one who is [ego eimi ho on] Yahweh, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is how I am to be remembered, my memorial to all generations. ~ Moses, Exodus 3:14-15. "I am YAHWEH, that is my name." Isaiah 42:8 The truth has been established by two witnesses. Believe it or perish. People also need to be aware that the verse numbers are not in the original Hebrew, they are added. There is no sentence breaks either. Therefore, it is improper to break up verses 14 and 15 in Exodus 3. They must be read together as one statement. Reading Exodus 3:14 and claiming the Greek expression "ego eimi ho on" is the same as "ego eimi" in John 8:58 does an injustice to the word of YHWH. The 70 plus Hebrew scholars that translated the Hebrew texts into Greek (LXX) chose to translate "EHYEH ASHER EHYEH" as "ego eimi ho on" which translates to English as "I am the one who is" The next verse tells us that the "WHO" is "YAHWEH." Should we ignore the 70 or more Hebrew scholars who all agreed to the above translation? Jesus NEVER EVER says I am YHWH. Jesus tells us his Father is greater then he is, and greater than ALL. In John 8:58 Jesus was declaring himself to be the Messiah who was prophesied to come before Abraham existed. He was not declaring himself to be God. CONTEXT is needed to understand this final declaration by Jesus that comes at the end of a long conversation. The Greek expression is "ego eimi." This expression is not a name for anyone. JOHN 4: 25 The woman said to him, “I know that the Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ). When he comes, he will tell us all things.” 26 Jesus said to her, “I who speak to you am he (ego eimi).” [the Messiah]. JOHN 7: 28 So Jesus cried out while teaching in the temple, saying, “You both know me, and know where I am from. And I have not come on my own, but he who sent me is true, whom you do not know. 29 I know him because I am from him, and he sent me.” 31 But many of the multitude believed in him, and they said, “When the Christ [Messiah] comes, will he do more signs than those that this man has done?” [It's a rhetorical question with an obvious answer. Jesus is the Messiah and there is no other like him]. JOHN 8: 18. I am one who testifies about myself, and the Father who sent me testifies about me.” [proof Jesus is not the Father YHWH]. 19. Therefore they said to him, “Where is your Father?” Jesus answered, “You know neither me, nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also.” [people who think Jesus is YHWH do not know Jesus or the Father. They worship a god of foolish men's own making]. 24. That is why I said to you that you will die in your sins. For unless you believe that I am the one, you will die in your sins.” [I am the one, meaning the Messiah, the one who was prophesied to come before Abraham existed]. The Bible is quite clear on this fact. Deuteronomy 18:18; Genesis 3:15 25. So they said to him, “Who are you?” Jesus said to them, “Just what I have been telling you from the beginning. [this is a no brainer. Jesus declared himself to be the Messiah from the beginning and he proved it by fulfilling prophecy and doing miracles]. 28 So Jesus said, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am the one. And I do nothing of myself, but as the Father taught me, I speak these things. [again, proving Jesus is not YHWH. People who think Jesus is YHWH, know nothing of the Father or the Son. They are delusional. YHWH has not revealed Himself or His Son to them. They Follow a Jesus of their own making]. 42. Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came from God and am here; for I have not come on my own, but he sent me. [Jesus is not YHWH....proof text]. 43. Why do you not understand what I am saying? Because you are not able to hear my word. [People who willfully believe Jesus is YHWH are not able to hear the words of Jesus, they are spiritually dead and willfully ignorant]. 44. You are of your father the Devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks out of his own character, for he is a liar, and the father of them. 45. But because I speak the truth, you do not believe me. 46. Which one of you convicts me of sin? If I speak truth, why do you not believe me? 47. The one who is of God hears the words of God. The reason you do not hear them is that you are not of God.” 54. Jesus answered, “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you say, ‘He is our God.’ 55. And you have not known him, but I know him. And if I were to say, ‘I do not know him,’ then I would be like you: a liar. But I know him, and keep his word. 56. Your father Abraham was overjoyed that he would see my day, and he saw it, and rejoiced.” REV Bible Translation gets it right. ["saw" means KNEW and UNDERSTOOD the prophecies concerning Jesus coming] 57. Therefore, the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” [they misunderstood Jesus words]. 58. Before Abraham existed, I am ("he"), or, ("the one"). WHO? The one Jesus declared himself to be from the beginning (John 4:25-26; John 7:28-31; John 8:18-19-24-25-28; John 8:42-47). Jesus said he is the Messiah who was prophesied to come. Jesus is not YHWH. He never said he was YHWH. That is the evidence. That is the CONTEXT. END OF PART 1

There are two ways that Hebrews 1:8 can be translated. Some translations render this verse "God is your throne" or "Thy throne given of God" meaning that God is the source of the Messiah's throne. The New Revised Standard Version has a footnote for Hebrews 1:8 that says, "Or [God is your throne]" as an alternative translation. The Good News Translation has the following footnote: "[or] God is your kingdom". This way of translating the verse seems to be the correct way since it is in harmony with the next verse, Hebrews 1:9, which says, "God, your God, has set you above your companions." Hebrews 1:8, 9 is actually quoting Psalm 45:6, 7. This Psalm originally applied to a human king, possibly Solomon. Obviously, the Psalmist did not think that Solomon was God.

Satan

1 Timothy 3:16 in the King James Version reads: "God was manifest in the flesh," referring to Jesus Christ. But most newer translations omit any reference to God and read, "He was manifest in the flesh" or "He who was revealed in the flesh." The discovery of older Greek manuscripts showed that the word "God" did not originally appear in this verse. Apparently, this corruption of the text was introduced to support the Trinity doctrine.

God in his son Jesus. God in man. Not god in god

@@upclosepersonal 😂 you're new at debating huh? 🤣🤣

Colossians 2:9 ; also see Colossians 1:19 In Colossians 2:9 the Greek word "theotes" is incorrectly translated as “Deity” or “Godhead” in most English Bibles. Deity of course means God from the Latin word Deus. This conflicts with many unambiguous verses in the Bible. The Greek word "theotes" occurs only once in the Bible (Colossians 2:9) where many Bibles have mistranslated it as Godhead or godhead. A variation "theiotes" is found in Romans 1:20 where it is improperly translated as "Godhead" in some English Bibles. The correct rendering in English is "divine nature." The word "Godhead" is a trinitarian invention. "Godhead" (KJV) is a trinitarian concept, which is why it is found in most English Bibles and only in Colossians 2:9 and Romans 1:20. To understand the meaning of theotes we have to consider the context. That means we must understand how the first century Greek speaking Colossians understood the meaning of "theotes." Other translations have theotes translated as: "divine plenitude" Mace New Testament "Divine Nature" Catholic Public Domain Version "God's nature" Weymouth New Testament "divine nature" Good News translation "God's nature" Holman Christian Standard Bible "God's nature" Christian Standard Bible "divinity" Smith's Literal Translation The above translations demonstrate the correct meaning of the verse is: "the fullness of YHWH's divine nature dwells in Jesus." Either way you choose, the KJV rendering or the above, neither means Jesus is YHWH. Liddell and Scott's Greek lexicon for ancient Greek translates "theotes" as “divinity, divine nature.” This is the meaning the Colossians would have perceived from Paul's use of "theotes." Paul would have understood the word "theotes" the same way the Colossians understood its meaning in their culture. Paul was not presenting them with a new definition of the word "theotes." If he was, he would have said so and he would have given an explanation for any such change in meaning. Imposing modern views on the text while ignoring the contemporary language and views of Paul's time is eisegesis, not exegesis. Paul wrote his letters in Koine Greek, common Greek. "For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body." Colossians 2:9 REV Bible. This translation conveys the correct meaning, although "the fullness of the divine nature" is my preference, as this is how the Colossians would have read the verse. The "Fullness of God" or "Fullness of Deity" relates to Jesus being filled with YHWH's holy spirit “without measure,” (SEE: John 3:34). Clearly Jesus had the fullness of the “divine nature” dwelling in him. This is what Paul is stating in 1 Colossians 2:9. Does this mean Jesus is God? For those who think so, what about the next verse? *_"So you also are complete through your union with Christ, who is the head over every ruler and authority."_* Colossians 2:10 The same is said about every Christian elsewhere in the Bible (Ephesians 3:19; and 2 Peter. 1:4). Since believers are complete through their union with Jesus, these verses cannot be saying Jesus is God without his followers being God also. The fulness of God is another way of saying "being full of God's spirit." John states: *_“.......for God gives him the spirit without limit."_* John 3:34 Paul states: *_“God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him.”_* Colossians 1:19 *_"And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God."_* Ephesians 3:19 Colossians 2:10; Ephesians 3:19; and 2 Peter 1:4 tells us (believers) that we have that same fullness, so verse 9 does not convey the idea that Jesus is God.

Hebrews 1:7-10 contain quotes from Psalms and it is the Psalmist doing the speaking to YAHWEH....so you got that wrong right from the start. Also, in verse 9 Jesus is said to have a God, so Jesus cannot be God in verse 8. You need to study these verses and not just read them. They are contested by experts for very good reasons. Your KJV has errors. That's a fact.

Because Jesus said he came only for the lost sheep of Israel. That makes him the good shepherd. When Jesus spoke those words, he was speaking to Jews before he was crucified. Later, God gave Paul another message for Gentiles (See Acts 13) which took place around 48 A.D.. That's when the message was given to Paul for the Gentiles and it's when Paul began to preach to both Jews and Gentiles the new revelation he received. Why did God give him a new message? Because Israel had rejected their Kingdom on earth and cut themselves off from it, and in doing so the Gentiles were also cut off from receiving the blessings of the earthly kingdom. God halted the prophetic time clock and suspended the kingdom until the tribulation begins. In the mean time, God has turned to Paul and given him a new revelation...and as Romans 11:11 states, it was to make the Jews jealous. This period of time known as the Age of Grace is an unprophesied period of time. Paul's Gospel, this present Age of Grace, and the entire Body of Christ was a kept secret that was never revealed until it was revealed to Paul in 48 A.D..

Or try 1 Timothy 3:16 "God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory." Hake please keep reading your Bible, Jesse is literally teaching false doctrine as he warns about it. This is a very important issue to figure out.

The people who do not know Jesus for themselves think they can "figure out" who Jesus is by repeating scripture without right understanding.

John 8:58. “I tell you the truth”, Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”

and God was the word. Not the word was God. Read the interlinear it says et deus erat verbum = and God was the word. the word (It: neutrum) dwellt among us. The Word (not Jesus himself) dwellt in Jesus. You people need to realizethat John wrote his gospel as a polemic against the gnostics of the time. That is why he used this kind of language. Nowhere in the entire thing does John call Jesus God or a God or a person of some trinity. my advice to you: take your KJV and throw it away. It does not serve you at all. It will confuse you especially with the fake translation of 1 John 5:7, check it across multiple translations and compare it to the manuscripts. You will wake up.

@LeviSpeaks Truth The only begotten of the Father yes. Nowhere does it say Jesus is God. Falsely accusing a brother is a sin. Repent.

Jesus cannot be God in Hebrews 1:8, and then have a God in verse 9. The error in translation should be obvious to you. Check more translations and dig for the correct and compatible translation that doesn't cause this conflict. Also consider What Hebrews 1:1-2 says. God did not speak through Jesus in the past....so how could Jesus be God? In addition to Hebrews 1:1-3 standing against your belief, look at what else follows before Hebrews 1:8 HEBREWS 1:4 *_so he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs._* Jesus became superior to angels which means at one time he was not superior to angels. If he was not superior to angels before becoming superior to angels, then how could he preexist in Heaven as a deity? HEBREWS 1:5 *_For to which of the angels did YHWH ever say, "You are my Son; today I have become your Father"? Or again, "I will be his Father, and he will be my Son"?_* These verses cannot be used as proof that Jesus is the Angel of the Lord or YHWH. Properly translated, these verses prove Jesus is not an angel or YHWH. Did YHWH become as much superior to angels as his name is superior to theirs? No! This verse is about Jesus Messiah. Jesus BECAME superior to angels which makes it obvious at one point in time he was NOT superior to angels. If he was not superior to angels in the past, it's obvious he did not preexist as an angel in heaven, nor is he coequal with God, as trinitarians believe. *_But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of YHWH he might taste death for everyone._* Hebrews 2:9 Clearly Jesus died for our sins. YHWH cannot die, therefore Jesus is not YHWH. *HEBREWS 1:6-7* *_When YHWH brings His firstborn into the world, He says, "Let all My angels worship him. In speaking of the angels He says, "I make My angels spirits, and My servants flames of fire."_* YHWH's firstborn is Jesus. YHWH is not talking to Himself. Nothing in verses 1-7 support the trinity doctrine.

Right - and we are supposed to be one in Christ. But that does not make us Christ.

@@rebuildingtheman god humbled himself as human for us did jesus die or god

@@rebuildingtheman only god is sinless and jesus was sinless

In John 1:1, there are two occurrences of the Greek noun "theos" (god). The first theos is preceded by the definite article "ho". When the noun has a definite article, it points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God. However, the second "theos", referring to the Word, is different. It does not have a definite article. Many scholars agree that the fact that the second theos does not have a definite article points to a characteristic or quality of the Word, that he was "divine", "a god", but not Almighty God himself.

John 14:28: "My Father is greater than I". John 11:36: "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"

@@BernaskaneyTheLangobard AND THE WORD WAS GOD,AND THE WIORD BECAME FLESH AS A HUIMAN,SO YES JESUS WAS NOT GOD ON EARTH BUT HE WAS GOD THE FATRHER IN HEAVEN,AND JESUS WAS THE SON OF MAN ON EARTH

Right - the Son is the image of the Father.

Read Ezekiel chapter 34 and Isaiah 9:6, 43:10 and John 8:24

Jesus wasn't good. Jesus wasn't a shepherd. And I'm not a sheep. Your logic is really bad. What being said is: like a "good shepherd" Jesus is going to lay down his life for us.

Didn't Jesus call the Father "the only true God" when he was praying to him in the garden of Gethsemane? (John 17:3) Philippians 2:9 says that God exalted Jesus to a higher position. How could Jesus be God if he was exalted by God? Revelation 1:8 does not call Jesus the Alpha and the Omega. Revelation 1:4 refers to this same person who is called "him who is, and who was, and who is to come." Then in verse 5, Jesus is spoken of as a *different* person from the Alpha and the Omega - "and from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness."

In John 17:3, Jesus called his Father in heaven "the only true God."

@@jollyrancher521 John 10:30-38 King James Version 30 I and my Father are one. 31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? 33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. 34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? 35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; 36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? 37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. 38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

What's a hermeneutic? What / whom / why are you asking?

@@rebuildingtheman Are you really asking? If so here you go. Hermeneutics is the study of interpretation. Traditionally, disciplines that rely on hermeneutics include theology, especially Biblical studies, jurisprudence, and medicine, as well as some of the human sciences, social sciences, and humanities. If you truly didn't know what that was. For your own good and others you should reconsider being a bible teacher. I think you are trying to do good. But if you don't know the basics of being a bible teacher you should not do it. Just as you wouldn't perform surgery without training. Because it is malpractice. Souls are far more important than bodies.

@@willpotter8772 how much of those hermeneutic studies do you think the disciples did? Jesus taught them and the spirit taught them. Do you believe that same spirit operates today? It does! Often men teaching from their OWN interpretation is what leads man astray.

@@briteeyes2133 Is that your interpretation? If only people would stop and think before they type. Just take a few seconds to see that if you applied your argument to yourself you could not say anything. This let's you know your proposition is unsound. Go back and try again. Could it be that you really don't know what you are talking about and don't realize that some type of hermeneutic is unavoidable. It is impossible to communicate without interpreting what someone has said. Therefore, the only question is are you interpreting well or poorly.

@@willpotter8772 Allow me to educate you young boy. Hermeneutics is an academic field which is highly subjective. This is because each particular denomination has tailored their own rules of hermeneutics based on their pre existing beliefs. They then construct their own hermeneutical base rules /base principals like a tailor made grid reference map - in fact that's exactly what they have done - hence why none of the different denominations can agree. Their maps do not match each others. Its actually the dumbest thing I have ever seen. Christians debating other Christians is actually hilarious - its the religious version of the Jerry Springer show.

OMG.....another one. Stop making stuff up. What does the Bible say.....that's all that counts. Jesus is not God and he did not exist in the past. *"Begotten today" and "born this day" means Jesus was fathered (procreated by God) in the womb of Mary. (Psalms 2:7; Acts 13:33; Isaiah 9:6; Matthew 1:18; Luke 2:11; John 3:16; John 1:14-18 ; Matthew 1:20). The Greek word "gennao" means to beget; to father an offspring, to become the father of; to procreate a descendant. Matthew 1:2-16 informs us Jesus' conception was by the Holy Spirit which is YHWH's spirit. The source of the pregnancy is YHWH's spirit. Jesus was produced, procreated, caused, generated, brought forth, came into being, begotten by YHWH's spirit. Jesus the Messiah was begotten and born. That means he had a beginning. To say otherwise conflicts with the entire doctrine of salvation because Yahweh cannot die. The Bible says YAH provided us with His only Begotten Son Jesus to die for our sins. If his death was not a real death, then there is no forgiveness of sins. John 3:16 is an umbrella text and fundamental to the faith. “For as the Father has life in himself; so has he given to the Son to have life in himself.” John 5:26. Did God give life to himself? No! He gave life to His Son Jesus. If Jesus eternally existed with the Father in Heaven then this verse becomes an absurdity. John 5:26 stands as proof Jesus did not have a preexistence. That should be everyone's starting position. When we come across scriptures that sound like Jesus may have preexisted or incarnated we need to study them in light of what the Bible teaches about Jesus being begotten, born, and given life by his Father. The context in such verses always point to Jesus having been in YHWH's plan, foreknowledge and predestined for glory. (John 17:5-24) “Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a MAN attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through him in your midst, just as you yourselves know - this MAN, delivered over by the PREDETERMINED PLAN AND FOREKNOWLEDGE OF GOD, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death." Acts 2:22-23 "In the past YHWH spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, BUT IN THESE LAST DAYS YHWH has spoken to us by His Son, whom He APPOINTED heir of all things, and THROUGH whom He made the ages [this present age and the ages to come]." HEBREWS 1:1-2 Note: The Greek word "aion" does not mean "universe" or "world" and should be translated as "ages" which means a span of time, and in this context "aion" refers back to the statement "in these last days" which is a clear reference to the Age of Grace; Church Age; this present age; these last days; and the future Kingdom Age when Jesus reigns on earth. Besides being an obvious mistranslation these verses do not say YHWH spoke through Jesus in the past, so it is incorrect to assume Jesus preexisted or had anything to do with the Genesis creation. "But NOW HE has been revealed ONCE, AT THE END OF THE AGES, to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself." *Hebrews 9:26* "But WHEN the FULLNESS OF TIME CAME, God SENT HIS SON, born from a woman, born under the law, in order to redeem those who were under the law so that we could receive adoption as sons." *Galatians 4:4* If Jesus had not paid the penalty for sin for those under the law, we (Gentiles) could not have been adopted as sons of God. He was FOREKNOWN BEFORE THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD, BUT WAS REVEALED IN THESE LAST TIMES for your sake, who THROUGH him are believers in God, the one who raised him out from among the dead and gave him glory so that your trust and hope are in God. *1 Peter 1:20* "........This grace was given us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time, but it has NOW BEEN revealed THROUGH the appearing of our Savior, Christ Jesus, who has destroyed death and has brought life and immortality to light through the gospel." *2 Timothy 1:9-10* This clearly means that, in YHWH's foreknowledge, grace was planned for us in Christ, but was not revealed until the appearing of our Savior 2000 years ago. "BEFORE I FORMED THEE in the belly I KNEW THEE; and BEFORE THOU CAMEST FORTH out of the womb I SANCTIFIED THEE, and I ORDAINED THEE A PROPHET.." *Jeremiah 1:5* Believers have been FOREKNOWN by YAHWEH and PREDESTINED by Him for sonship in Christ Jesus. "For whom he did FOREKNOW, he also did PREDESTINATE to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren." *Romans 8:29* This is not saying believers pre-existed before creation, but rather they existed purely in God's mind, in his foreknowledge, and in his purpose, from the beginning. "He hath chosen US (the believers) in him BEFORE THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD." *Ephesians 1:4* "He had AFORE PREPARED UNTO GLORY." *Romans 9:23* "Therefore, do not be ashamed of the testimony about our Lord, nor of me his prisoner, but share in suffering for the good news-relying on the power of God who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not based on our works, but based on his own purpose and grace, which was given to us in Christ Jesus BEFORE THE AGES OF TIME, BUT NOW has been revealed by the appearing of our Savior Christ Jesus, who abolished death, and brought life and immortality to light through the good news, to which I was appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher, which is why I also am suffering these things." *2 Timothy 1:8-12* (REV Bible) According to Paul, Christians were given grace “before the ages of time." Does that mean we were alive with YAH in eternity before we were born? Most Christians accept it to mean we were in YAH's foreknowledge “in the mind of YAH." The same is true for Jesus in John 17:5 where he asks for the glory he had “with the Father” before the world began. These kinds of statements in the Bible relate to YAH's foreknowledge and divine plan from eternity. *Revelation 13:8* states Jesus is the: “Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.” Was Jesus slain before the earth was made? We know Jesus was crucified long AFTER the foundation of the world. What John obviously means is that before Jesus was brought into existence he was predestined to be the Savior of the world before the world was even formed. God’s plan for mankind's redemption, (from the beginning, before the earth was formed), was to be carried out through the person of Jesus. Reading preexistence into scripture rather than accepting predestination, destroys the harmony of the Bible. Jesus and all believers existed in God's foreknowledge as a forethought (divine plan) before the earth was created. "If only there was a MEDIATOR between us, who might lay his hands upon us both." No mediator.....means no Jesus in the OT. *Job **9:33* "No mediator" means no Jesus with YHWH. "IF ONLY there was one who would PLEAD FOR A MAN WITH YAHWEH, as a man pleads for his brother." *Job **16:21* No one to plead for a man means no Jesus. "But HE IS ALONE, so who can make Him change? What He desires to do, that is what He does." *Job **23:13* "YHWH is alone" means no Jesus with YHWH. Deuteronomy 18:18 states God would raise up a prophet (Jesus) from among the people of Israel and place His own words in his mouth. Also, Matthew 1:1-16 traces Jesus ancestry. Jesus was a begotten and born human being who was the result of a special act of procreation by God. God anointed Jesus and gave him His spirit without Limit. Jesus declares himself to be a MAN who has told the truth he received from God. John 8:4 Men do not exist before they exist. We either exist or we don't.

@@johnspartan98 What you missed is that the almighty God CANNOT be here now, because we would be expected at the same time to A) know the future AND B) being able to decide. But this is impossible, it's a contradiction, like sitting on a soft stone. This is why you have the Son of God, it's a workaround.

And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

@@luisgarcia373 " The almighty God therefore is ONLY in that past and therefore "no one ever saw God". However, from that past God is able to REACH US here in the LIMITED FORM of a spirit "God is a spirit"..Everything is made by the Spirit of God now. At the Jesus' baptism the Spirit of God said " This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. "

That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him

Your translation and interpretation of John 20:28 is in conflict with the more plain teaching in John 20:17. I will explain the error in simple terms. Thomas is not saying Jesus is God. The Greek text reads as follows: *Ho kyrios mou kai ho theos mou* This literally translates to English as: *_"the Lord (kyrios) of me, and the God (ho theos) of me."_* Two separate individuals are being referred to. 1. Lord (kyrios) refers to Jesus. 2. God (ho theos) applies to The LORD GOD ADONAI (YHWH); the Supreme Almighty God, and it never applies to Jesus in scripture. People are quick to quote John 20:28 out of context to support their belief that Jesus is God, however, they conveniently ignore John 20:31 which states: *_"But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name."_* John 20:31 Jesus is the Son of YAH, not YAH the Son. You cannot have things both ways friend. You cannot say you believe Thomas was calling Jesus His God in John 20:28 and then deny the obvious statements in other verses that prove Jesus is not God. When you are faced with accepting both views given in the scriptures, now you have a problem to solve. Which one is mistranslated.....that's the problem that needs to be solved. A little common sense here goes a long way when one employs the BIBLICAL METHOD OF INTERPRETATION that respects the immediate and remote context. As I explained already, the Greek does not support the translation and interpretation you are espousing. Just a few verses before John 20:28 Jesus says to Mary: *_"I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God."_* John 20:17 SEE THE PROBLEM NOW? When John 20:28 is properly translated it does not convey the idea that Jesus is God. Thomas is acknowledging Jesus as being his Lord, and YHWH as the God who raised him. The Greek literally translates to English as: *_"the Lord of me and the God of me."_* This is exactly how a Greek speaker would refer to both Jesus and God as separate individuals and it is exactly how the Greek is constructed in the original text. The two definite articles ("the") indicates two persons are in view. With one definite article, there would be one person. Thomas did not say, "the Lord and the God of me." He actually said, "the Lord OF ME and the God OF ME." This indicates Thomas is referring to two individuals. If Thomas was referring to Jesus and God as one person we would find a Greek construction like that In John 20:17 where the Greek convention is used to signify one person, "THE Father of me and Father of you and God of me and God of you." This is even further evidence that Thomas did not refer to one person but to two persons. The view that Thomas was referring to Jesus as God is also refuted by the Simon Peter account with Jesus in Matthew He (Jesus) said to them, “And who do you say that I am?” Simon Peter answered, “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” And Jesus answered him, “You are blessed, Simon son of Jonah, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but my Father in heaven!” Matthew 16:15-17 The disciples had been spreading the word that God raised Jesus from the dead but Thomas needed to see and touch Jesus to believe Jesus was alive. When he seen Jesus hands and touched his side he acknowledged Jesus as the Messiah, and he believed YHWH raised him from the dead. Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed." John 20:29 Believe what? Believe Jesus had been resurrected by YHWH. Some trinitarian scholars make the claim that Thomas was saying the same thing David said in Psalms 35:23. This is a false claim. *My God and my Lord* in Psalms 35:23 is the result of combining two different names for God, *Elohai* as well as *Adonai.* Elohai is a form of "Elohim." All these words mean YHWH. Strong’s Concordance numbers: 430, 136 Bible reference: Ps. 35:23 A similar name (with the Hebrew words reversed) is found in Psalm 38:15 (and about forty times elsewhere): Lord my God (’Adonai ’Elohai). LORD, my God (Yahweh ’Elohai) is a name in Psalm 13:3. Anyone that reads the first Gospel of Matthew 16:15-17 should see that the trinitarian interpretation of John 20:28 is an error. The first clue someone is interpreting a verse wrong is when an interpretation causes conflict with other scriptures. Conclusion When all the evidence is honestly weighed, there is simply no doubt that Thomas was affirming Jesus' earlier teaching to him and the other disciples, that to see and believe in Jesus was to see and believe in the Father. "See" in this context means to know and understand with one's mind....not to see with physical eyes. Do you see now? MEANS, do you understand now?

And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:

Do you know what that verse means?

@@rebuildingtheman Yes it means that Jesus , who was appointed by God, will give the kingdom back to God. This verse dismantles all pillars of any trinitarian doctrine. It shows that Jesus is not god and the Holy Spirit is not a seperate person.

This was definitely one of the verses that finally opened my eyes. May whatever the truth is be with all of us

@@youngknowledgeseekerJesus is the Truth.

Jesus is a prophet as Deuteronomy 18:18 says, but he is also the Son of God. God made DNA (seed) to unite with Mary's DNA (seed) to produce the baby Jesus who grew in stature and wisdom and was anointed by God as the Messiah. Surely if man can do this type of insemination using sperm frozen in sperm banks, you are not going to deny that God could inseminate Mary with an uncorrupted DNA are you?

@@johnspartan98 what on earth are you on ,why would god have a son lmao now if you mean son in the sense that he is close like a father and son relationship that's another story.Dont be talking out of your ass ,you sound so dumb

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The phrase "God the Father" appears many times in the New Testament, but the phrase "God the Son" does not appear at all. If Jesus were part of a Godhead, the second person of the Trinity, you would think that this phrase would appear. On the other hand, Jesus is referred to many times as "God's Son" or the "Son of God".

@@jollyrancher521 - The Son of God is likewise a god. He is merely NOT God the "Father." The God of both the old Testament and the New Testament is Jesus Christ. God the Father observes it all, and commands it all. And Jesus Christ observes and follows the will of his Father.

@@scotthullinger4684 How can Jesus Christ be the God of both the Old Testament and the New Testament when Psalm 110:1 says "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool"? Is Jesus talking to himself? The word LORD in all caps represents the divine name YHWH. In other words, "YHWH said to my Lord." According to Acts 2:34-36, where Peter quotes Psalm 110:1, God is speaking to Jesus Christ. It is clear that from these verses that Jesus is not YHWH.

@@jollyrancher521 - Your yourself have made it clear that LORD and Lord are two different beings. The devine YHWA is Jesus Christ. Guess who God the Father is? God the Father is God the Father, Elohim. And of course, Jehova is Jesus Christ. This can't be the least bit confusing to any sane person. The God who commands in the Old Testament is Jehovah - Jesus Christ. Same for the New Testament. The God who delivered the 10 commandments to Moses was Jesus Christ. Lord God is yet another identifier for Jehovah. Elohim oversees everything, but Jehovah-Jesus Christ is the one who carries it all out. He does the will of his Father. Jesus Christ is the Lord of this world. And Jesus Christ is the Creator. We are commanded to pray to God the Father - Elohim, and to do so in the name of his son, Jesus Christ. When Jesus Christ prays, he's not praying to himself, no; he's praying to his father Elohim.

If you’re not being sarcastic, No one should answer this for you. You need to look it up for yourself. The answer crucial.

Being born of water is referring to the vaginal birth, your first birth.

@@robertt3741 Matthew 28:19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit”. When you were born "of water" that wasn't in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

@@lionkai22 they are referring to baptism of the spirit here. That is the only way you can be born again, through a spiritual rebirth. Water baptism is just a public profession. When I was baptized by water, it didn’t change my spirit. Only through forgiveness and after having experienced God was I able to overcome and be born again.

@@robertt3741 No i disagree that is the water baptism. More proof is Luke 3:16 John answered and said to them all, “As for me, I baptize you with water". In this verse you clearly see that this is the water baptism is not vaginal. Further in this verse it says He [Jesus] will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire. This is the baptism of the spirit where you get the gifts of the spirit. So this is what is meant by first comment when Jesus said you need to have a water baptism and spirit baptism.

@@robertt3741 Water baptism is what John the baptist was doing (and said he did) and then the baptism of the spirit is receiving the gifts. Jesus said you need both.

Prove it from scripture.

@@johnspartan98 They worshipped Jesus in the Bible. God said don’t have any other gods. Jesus HAS to be God, or the Bible contradicts itself.

@@Stangy04 Jesus never claimed divinity at all. He said that no one, not even him, knows about The Hour except The Father. Clearly he's distinguishing himself from God. It's blatantly clear Jesus is not God.

And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

@@luisgarcia373 In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was God. Jesus is the word of God therefore Jesus IS/WAS God

Jesus is the Son of God. You should guard yourself from believing something other than the truth.

You're in denial

@@rebuildingtheman You're following Arianism... that is a heresy...

Right - he's a reflection of his Father - he's not God, but made in His image, just as we are to be.

@@rebuildingtheman He also, said, "I and the Father are One" You also know, the gospel of John chapter 1,"In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, the Word is God" and later on, "the Word became flesh and dwelt among men." That's a conclusive passage. Jesus is God. Your insistence on striping Him of His divinity has no support in scripture.

@@bryanbishop2377 Amen brother

@@rebuildingtheman Nowhere does he, or his disciples, or his prophets say he's a reflection...you made that up out of whole clothe...

@@rebuildingtheman Debate me... I shut down Jehovah's Witnesses for a living... You have not debated the right person yet.... I'm the right person

1 cor 15:28

Trinity is like drugs

I’d agree but if you think about it, there’s nothing logical about the spiritual stuff to begin with. Faith has to do with things you don’t understand maybe not yet.

Jesus was a perfect sinless man. He could give his life for the sins of another man. This is a 1:1 trade. But God wanted to pay for the sins of ALL, not just 1 of 1,000,000. If God became flesh, then his death could pay for the sins of the world. Please see John 1 chapter 1.

If Jesus is not God then he should not have created the world.... Just shut you up in a sentence 🙂🙂🙂