If I could bring one book back in to existance the originial Gemania would be it.

@@baltulielkungsgunarsmiezis9714Etruscan dictionary still gets my vote, but this is a close second.

To avoid inbreeding and get metal these groups had to interact so if they where of common origin their groups likely still preserved a classic dialect continuum with every village speaking differently but every village understanding the speach of the next one.

@@baltulielkungsgunarsmiezis9714Yep, trade networks were extensive & the powers in these nations decentralized. I think this might be a reason why the dialects remained consistent, but that could also be a result of poor documentation too, who knows.

It's related to Spanish "cebolla" and Polish "cebula"...all come from Latin.

@@erichamilton3373 thanks, didn't know that

bûke!

@@JB-pk8vm Baaske!

sipuli Borrowed from Late Old Swedish sipul (“red onion”), sipol, akin to German Zwiebel, ultimately from Late Latin cepulla

I put it into more of a central place on the map since it would not fit into the image otherwise, but you are right. Southern Scandinavia was thoroughly IE long before that time, with perhaps pitted-ware languages maybe holding out in peripheral areas in the early bronze age at the latest. But that is still a generous estimate. The earlier neolithic farmers almost completely vanished.

Good question.

PIE is an artificial reconstruction based on guesing, such language never existed, though. Slavic or if one wants old Slavic, being the oldest language of Europe is the mother tongue of Romance and Germanic languages. All Europe toponimes and especially hydronimes confirm this premise. See few examples to this statement, English and Latin basic words that come from Slavic.. What is the etymology of English word "to write"? The simple answer: Slavic word "wryte" meaning "to carve". What is the etymology of Latin word "scribe"? a.: Slavic word, infinitive "skrobat" These two examples show Old Slavic language predates both English and Latin languages i.e. Slavic language is the true mother tongue of Europe. Knowledge in Slavic is VEDA, same as in Sanskrit. From this root-word comes "education" whereas letter "v" got dropped. English "weather" comes from Slavic "wiater", "to rape" from "rypat".

@@Lechoslaw8546 damn ive heard of Hindu linguistic supremacists, but never Slavic linguistic supremacists. And I thought I was very pro Slavicism

@@jeremias-serus He is probadly a believer of Great Lechia, an ancient great empire that ruled most of Eurasia in the distant past. Here in Poland we call them ''turbo-slavs".

@@Lechoslaw8546 You are an 1d10t....And this is certain!

@@tidsdjupet-mr5ud Thanks!

adw-goe.de/fileadmin/forschungsprojekte/ortsnamen_rhein_elbe/dokumente/Publikationen_Udolph_PDF/2001-2005/283._Udolph_Nordic_Germanic_Indoeuropean_and_the_structure_of_the_Germanic_language_family._The_Nordic_Languages.pdf

Vadabus: from vaba + the suffix -dus. "Vaba" comes from Old East Slavic свободь Vapaus: from vapaa + -uus. "Vapaa" comes from Proto-Finnic *vapada, which is probably borrowed from early PS *svabada According to these etymologies the Finnish loan is older Source: Wiktionary

"A linguistic map of prehistoric northern Europe," 2012. So many amazing chapters, all free online!

@@danielbriggs991 Thank you so much!

I meant more Britannia as a part of the British isles, which weren't subjugated as a whole region by Rome, with Hadrianus wall and all that.

You can read more here: www.academia.edu/4811770 www.academia.edu/38396354

there’s no evidence to suggest medieval Anglo-Saxon dialects originated in a Germanic language extant in Britain before the Roman Period, and there is nothing in the comparative analysis of Old English with her closest continental relatives that contradicts an arrival of OE in Britain during the Migration Period

Germanic broke up intro separate languages fairly late, it is only really Gothic that goes its own way early on. @@marsh2537

@@marsh2537 There was however development on the island, so it might be wrong to say that OE arrived.

I should have said "the British Isles"

Romans built a Wall to fence in the Picts in today's Scotland

no

Germany comes from Latin 'Germania'

​@@Nastya_07The real history of Europe is not what the monks recorded in their writings, such as the dates of the great massacres and occupations. This is only an interpretation but not reality. Germanai after baptism Vokiečiai(vogti ietis)it means(to steal spears from) Human history is human language

@@raimundas2204 Ive heard it said that Germania comes from latin meanining something along the lines of land of the blood breathren. Our latviešu word is Vācija or Vāczeme named after the people vācieši which means something along the lines of gatherers or takers cos the german knights came to our lands and took our stuff. We balti having a different name for it doesnt mean the latin way is wrong or some kind of forgery.

It comes from Latin Germania, and perhaps from a Celtic or Belgic name before that. In the 1st Century BCE, it seems to have referred to a league of Celtic-speaking and/or Belgic-speaking peoples on both sides of the Rhine. In the 1st Century CE, it was transferred to Germanic-speaking peoples as far east as the Bastarnae.

You can "derive" literally anything from any language if you try hard enough.

@@pikaia1504 No, you can not. But if you think you can, go ahead and do it.

Lmao so true

I'll challenge it if you like: Presumably you accept that Slavic is an IE language with its roots in PIE. If so what is this linguistic nationalism all about? The origins must be from the PIE homeland. By noticing that there are cognates between Slavic and Germanic or Brithonic place names, all that you are doing is noticing that they are branches on the same tree. Linguistics is not a nationalistic war.

@@michaelsargeaunt Instead of accusing me of "nationalism" and other witchcraft, come forward with a real argument. So far, all you are able to do is using slurs against me, and actually this is exactly what you are accusing me of, ugly nationalism.

maybe they just had a common ancestor in PIE??

Yeap...The slavs take it from latin and proto-german!!! GFYS!

Why would they loan a word that means 'to carve' and change its meaning into 'to write'? The simple answer: because they already had their own word for 'to carve'. So in fact this example proves the opposite of what you imply, that the two proto-languages coexisted and that neither is a derivative of the other one.

@@romaliop Apparently this word can be 4,5 thousand year old, and come from Bell Beaker culture folks. That time Britain was populated by protoSlavic people, who also left behind many river names like Thames, the dark river. I am not sure whether protoSlavic was directly related to P-Celtic, but I am sure it was not directly related to Q-Celtic, of course all these languages were Indo-European.

@@cosmincasuta486 kzfaq.info/get/bejne/oMqerK9y17vVlGg.html Slavic and Balto-Slavic languages are closest to Sanskrit of all Europe languages. kzfaq.info/get/bejne/ptp0icSH0d2dnWg.html