I've checked it and you are correct that reverse racism doesn't exist. But when making a claim you also have to provide evidence, so let me do it. Definition of Racism: When one or more people or insititutions treat one or more people different from others based on their ethinicity. Example of racism: Person or group A) treats person or group B) better or worse than other people based on their ethnicity. possible reversions of the example: Person or group B) treats person or group A) better or worse than other people based on their ethnicity. Person or group A) treats person or group B) worse or better than other people based on their ethnicity. Person or group B) treats person or group A) worse or better than other people based on their ethnicity. Both the original example and all possible reversions are still within the definition of racism. Taking out either better or worse limiting it to one type of different treatment only limits the number of reversions not the outcome of staying within the definition of racism. As such there is no reverse racism. The only reversion that actually would change something is for the example of: Institution A) treats person or group B) better or worse than other people based on their ethnicity. This example would be the definition of institutional racism. In theory this is not reversible, since institutions aren't an ethnic group. If we are loose with the definition though, it could be taken as dissatisfaction with institutions being dominated by members of a certain ethnic group. If we do that, reverse racism means being against institutional racism, and since institiutional racism is just a type of racism, it just means being against racism, which is an aversion, not a reversion. So since all reversions either don't change anything or change racism to an aversion towards racism, reverse racism doesn't exist.

I actually thought those were funnier than the rest of his stuff