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Oh shi-

Like if i was really clever i wouldn't be here the night before my exam 😭

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There is a bit of a gap in reasoning in the video, so some might have failed to fill the missing bits. First of all we usually suppose a rigid and masless link to the pivot point (very much like in a pendulum clock). At rest the gravitational force and the reaction force acting on a mass m due to link are of equal absolute value and opposite signs. This is a situation of stable equilibrium. A force with which the link, that is, the masless rod, acts on a (point) mass m has to be directed along the rod. Moving the mass by a tiny angle from equilibrium (lower rest position) causes a restoring force to appear. At this point you are supposed to draw the (missing in the video) parallelogram of forces. A reaction force in the link moved along the link's line forms an angle ϑ with the gravitational pull on m. That's where the equation τ = LFgsin(ϑ) comes from. There are two gross simplifications in this reasoning. First it is a "flat earth theory" - enough to remember this infinite capacitor from electrostatics course. This is a very good approximation even for pendula of huge size (like a 2 miles link). Secondly, it is totally misleading about general behaviour of the pendulum. Pendulum (with a stiff masless rod) has another equilibrium point, where it is on top of the pivot, rather than the bottom. This is an unstable position and, when infinitesimally disturbed, mass will move with near zero at first, but increasing velocity to reach the bottom point and run past it. You can try and carry on with this argument to covience yourself, that it will take infinite time for such a pendulum to return to the top point. So, a natural period of a pendulum is anything from near zero, when infinitesimally disturbed from a bottom equilibrium point to near infinity, when starting from the top. Now one can start thinking about period as a function of an initial amplitude/angle ϑ, which fits the bill. Approximations better be used with care.

because your effort depends on trust in what I say: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pendulum_(mathematics)#Examples here is your confidence boost.

@elonmusk

@@whoislewys3546😂😂😂

I unterstood it so nicely

understood*

Wazzup

You do not have to ask my friend, that is the beauty of internet. Ask away

zizou357 you don't increase the constant, bigger objects have a bigger gravitational force. Acceleration=f/m So if we have a bigger mass, a bigger force is required and they both cancel each other to give us the constant 9.82m/s^2 So for instance if we have a mass of 20kg, a gravitational force of 196.4N would be acting on it. And they both would cancel each to give us the constant 9.82m/s^2. Objects on earth naturally cancel each other so perfectly that we always end up with an acceleration of 9.82, regardless of the mass

Well you need to know how do we get T=2π√l/g in the first place.

The g in this scenario is the downwards acceleration, not the value of g as in gravity. If we take the pendulum to another planet, or take it in an elevator and accelerate the elevator the value of 'g' would change. And yes this is 1 year ago but I thought it might help someone who has the same question.

Well small objects on earth's surface experience constant acceleration in free fall so increasing the mass would not affect the acceleration. If you look at the forces you have a greater force pulling down, therefore a greater tension force in the string which gives a greater resulting force in the direction of the pendulums movement. This force which moves the bob will be 2 times larger if the mass is 2 times larger and so on. Therefore acceleration will stay the same since a=F/m.

@@isakhernefeldt9896 Oh okay I get it! Thank you!!

I believe it might have something to do with air resistance/ frinctional forces that the formula doesnt accommodate for? Thats my best guess.

Never mind, I figured it out. In a simple pendulum, the amplitude DOES have an effect (small) on the period. If you want to be as accurate as possible, you need to use the large amplitude pendulum formula (found here: hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/pendl.html#c1), which does account for a variance in amplitude.

Never mind, I figured it out. In a simple pendulum, the amplitude DOES have an effect (small) on the period. If you want to be as accurate as possible, you need to use the large amplitude pendulum formula (found here: hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/pendl.html#c1), which does account for a variance in amplitude.

It's Becuase you can you Sin and cosine. When the angle is small, like 10 degrees, sin 10 and cos 10 are nearly equal. However you cant do this if the pendulum swings vigorously, let's say 50 degrees in which case the sin and cosine are drastically different and yon can't ignore the difference

@@joshbahall6341 Please! the approximation is, that for small angles ϑ = sin(ϑ). This, combined with our radial love of elliptic integrals drives us into applying the simple solution.

Hey just out of curiosity Did you take pendulums in highschool

Amongst other things, using a pendulum is one of the simplest and fairly accurate experiments for measuring the value of the local gravitational field.

When.you swing from a tree and land in the water. The swing is a pendulum

Stephen Curry Hi Curry 👋🏾

What's the joke LOL?

@@manjudhar3434 his life lol

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